CHƯƠng trình học nội dung yêu cầU



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LỜI NÓI ĐẦU

Để giúp các bạn có tư liệu tham khảo, luyện tập và làm quen với với kỳ kiểm tra chứng chỉ A Tiếng Anh, chúng tôi biên soạn tập tài liệu này. Tài liệu gồm có 6 phần:



  1. ĐIỀU KIỆN VÀ THỂ THỨC DỰ THI

  2. CHƯƠNG TRÌNH HỌC

  3. NỘI DUNG YÊU CẦU

  4. CẤU TRÚC ĐỀ THI

  5. XẾP LOẠI KẾT QUẢ KIỂM TRA

  6. NỘI DUNG CÁC CHỦ ĐỀ THI NÓI

  7. MỘT SỐ ĐỀ THI MẪU




  1. ĐIỀU KIỆN VÀ THỂ THỨC DỰ THI

Nếu bạn là học viên đang theo học tại các trung tâm ngoại ngữ trục thuộc Trung tâm giáo dục thường xuyên tỉnh Long An thì liên hệ tại văn phòng nhà trường để được hướng dẫn làm thủ tục dự thi. Nhưng nếu bạn là thí sinh tự do thì đến Trung tâm ngoại ngữ của Trung tâm giáo dục thường xuyên tỉnh Long An số_____________________để liên hệ nộp hồ sơ và lệ phí dự thi.

* Hồ sơ đăng ký dự kiểm tra gồm:

1. 01 đơn đăng ký dự kiểm tra cấp chứng chỉ (phụ lục)

2. 01 Bản sao giấy CMND hoặc giấy tùy thân có dán ảnh

3. 02 ảnh 4cm x 6cm ( chụp không quá 6 tháng)

Hồ sơ đăng ký dự kiểm tra phải được đựng trong một bao bì, bên ngoài ghi rõ họ tên, địa chỉ, điện thoại (nếu có) của người đăng ký dự kiểm tra, danh mục giấy tờ trong hồ sơ.

* Thủ tục đăng ký dự kiểm tra:

Thí sinh nộp hồ sơ đăng ký dự kiểm tra, lệ phí kiểm tra đúng thời hạn quy định cho trung tâm để xét duyệt, đưa vào danh sách dự kiểm tra.



  1. CHƯƠNG TRÌNH HỌC

Muốn dự kiểm tra Chứng chỉ A Tiếng Anh cần phải có vốn từ vựng và ngữ pháp căn bản. Tài liệu ôn tập có thể là:

1. Hutchinson, T. (1997). Lifelines Elementary. Oxford University Press.

2. Hartley,B & Viney, H. (1994). Streamlines English (Departure). Oxford University Press

3. Liz & Soars, J. (2001). American Headway (Book 1). Oxford University Press.

4. Naber, T & Blackwell, A. (2004). Knowhow (Book 1). Oxford University Press.


  1. NỘI DUNG YÊU CẦU

A. NGỮ PHÁP

  1. to be

  2. there + be

  3. present simple tense, past simple tense, present continuous tense, present perfect tense

  4. be going to

  5. have got

  6. have to

  7. can

  8. comparative, superlative

  9. like/would like

  10. Pronouns

  11. Adjectives

  12. Posessive adjectives

  13. This, that, these, those

  14. Telling the time

  15. Countable/uncountable nouns

  16. Some, any

  17. Ordinal numbers/Cardinal numbers

  18. Prepositions of movement

  19. Prepositions of time: in, on, at

  20. Singular/ plural nouns

  21. Articles

  22. Phrasal verbs: look for, look after, turn on, turn off…

B. ĐỌC HIỂU:

Đọc và hiểu được ý chính hoặc chi tiết của một số đoạn văn ngắn để có thể trả lời các dạng câu hỏi kiểm tra về nội dung của đoạn.



C. VIẾT:

Viết được các câu đơn giản, có thể viết và sắp xếp các câu có liên quan với nhau để tạo thành một đoạn văn ngắn về các chủ đề quen thuộc liên quan đến bản thân.



D. NGHE

Nghe được ý chính và một số ý chi tiết liên quan đến nội dung các chủ đề cơ bản sau:



  1. time

  2. date

  3. price

  4. color

  5. family

  6. telephone number

  7. food and drink

  8. describing people

  9. weather

  10. job

E. NÓI

Trình bày được nội dung cơ bản và trả lời một số các câu hỏi liên quan đến các chủ đề sau:



  1. personal identification

  2. daily routines

  3. free time and entertainment

  4. city life or country life

  5. weather

  1. CẤU TRÚC ĐỀ THI

1. READING COMPREHENSION (ĐỌC HIỂU) THỜI GIAN: 45PHÚT- 10 ĐIỂM

* SECTION A:

Choose the best the answer (about grammar and vocabulary) ( 10 sentences)

* SECTION B:

Read the text and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase. (5 sentences)

OR Read the text and answer the questions. (5 sentences)

OR Read the text and decide whether the sentences are True (T) or False (F) (5 sentences)

2. WRITING ( VIẾT) THỜI GIAN: 45PHÚT- 10 ĐIỂM

* SECTION A:

Make questions for the underlined parts (5 sentences)

OR Finish the second sentence so that it has the nearest meaning to the first one (5 sentences)

OR Arrange the words and phrases to make correct sentences (5 sentences)

OR Make sentences from given prompts (5 sentences)

* SECTION B:

Write a short paragraph about 50 -60 words.

3. LISTENING ( NGHE) THỜI GIAN: 30 PHÚT- 10 ĐIỂM

* SECTION A:

Listen to a short passage or conversation and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D)

Listen to a short passage or conversation and check True or False

* SECTION B:

Listen to a short passage or conversation and answer the questions

Listen to a short passage or conversation and fill in the blanks

4. SPEAKING ( VẤN ĐÁP) 10 ĐIỂM

* SECTION A:

Thí sinh sẽ bốc thăm chọn một trong năm chủ đề cho sẵn. Sau 5 phút chuẩn bị, thí sinh trình bày với giám khảo.

* SECTION B:

Sau khi thí sinh trình bày xong, giám khảo sẽ hỏi thí sinh 2-3 câu hỏi liên quan đến chủ đề vừa trình bày.


  1. XẾP LOẠI KẾT QUẢ KIỂM TRA

* Việc xếp loại kết quả kiểm tra để ghi vào chứng chỉ cấp cho các thí sinh được thực hiện trên cơ sở điểm trung bình cộng (ĐTBC) của tất cả các điểm kiểm tra đã quy về thang điểm 10, cụ thể:

- Loại Giỏi: ĐTBC từ 8 đến 10 điểm ( không có môn nào dưới 7 điểm)

- Loại Khá: ĐTBC từ 7 đến cận 8 điểm ( không có môn nào dưới 6 điểm)

- Loại TB: ĐTBC từ 5 đến cận 7 điểm ( không có môn nào dưới 3 điểm)



NỘI DUNG CÁC CHỦ ĐỀ THI NÓI
Topic 1 : Personal identification.
My name is Le Minh Tan. I’m living on Nguyen Dinh Chieu Street, Tan An City, Long An province. I am a student of Tan An high school. There are four people in my family. My father is a teacher. My mother is a doctor. My sister/ brother is thirteen years old and he is a pupil.

I like listening to music and watching television in my free time. My favourite sport is football. I have studied English for five years. I like learning English to read books and talk to foreigners. I want to become a doctor when I grow up.


Topic 2 : Daily routines
My name is Le Minh Tan. I’m living on Nguyen Dinh Chieu Street, Tan An City, Long An province. Every morning I wake up at 5:30 to do exercises. Then I have breakfast and I go to school at 6:45. At 11:30 I come back home for lunch. In the afternoon I don’t go to school. I often learn my lessons, do my homework and read books until half past four. I usually have dinner at 6 o’clock when my mother come s back from work. After dinner I usually watch television or listen to music. Sometimes I go out with my brother or my friends. I always take a look over my lessons I have learnt and the homework I have done before going to bed at 10 o’clock.
Topic 3 : Free time and entertainment
I am a student. I go to school every morning from Monday to Saturday. Besides, I am also attending an English course in the evening. I am very busy with my studies. I am only free on Sundays. In my free time I enjoy reading books, listening to music and watching television. At weekends I often go shopping with my mother. Moreover, I can cook very well. I usually cook good dishes for my family on my holidays. Sometimes, I take a leisurely ride to the countryside to enjoy fresh air or go on a picnic to Vung Tau with my friends. I enjoy the entertainments I have during my free time. This makes me feel relaxed and happy.


Topic 4: City life or country life
Both city life and country life have advantages as well as disadvantages.

In the city, the houses are supplied with electricity and drinking water. It’s convenient for city people to go from place to place by bus, by taxi or by motorbike. They can buy everything they need in supermarkets and department stores everywhere. For entertainment, they can go to the theaters, clubs, cinemas and so on. However, they have to suffer from air pollution and noise pollution which are very harmful to their health.

Many people prefer to live in the country because they can enjoy the fresh air, the peaceful atmosphere and the beautiful landscapes. However, life in the country is not comfortable and easy. Country life lack such comforts and conveniences as electricity, good transportation and entertainment.

I think city life is more suitable for young people. Elderly people should enjoy life in the countryside.


Topic 5: Weather
Vietnam is a tropical country. The climate is often hot and humid. In the North of Vietnam there are four seasons: Spring, Summer, Autumn and Winter. In the South of Vietnam there are only two seasons: the rainy season and the dry season. It rains a lot from May to November. In the dry season it is very hot. Mainly the temperature swings between the mid 20s to low 30s all year round. Sometimes, there are storms, floods or hurricanes which humans are afraid of. Therefore, in the rainy season, the weather forecast is very important, especially with the fishermen.

I prefer Spring because the weather is warm and the landscapes are very beautiful.



MỘT SỐ ĐỀ MẪU

PRACTICE TEST 1

I. READING

SECTION A: (4 marks)

In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. On your answer sheet indicate the letter A, B, C or D against the number of each item 1 to 10 for the word or phrase you choose.

  1. ___ this magazine before?

a. Do you read b. Are you going to read c. Are you reading d. Have you read

  1. Is Mont Blanc ___ mountain in Europe?

a. the higher b. the most highest c. the more high d. the highest

  1. It’s my ___ computer.

a. parents b. parents’ c. parent d. parent’s

  1. It’s ten ___ seven.

a. to b. for c. at d. in

  1. I can’t see. Where are my ___?

a. glasses b. stamps c. keys d. lipsticks

  1. He was very cold,_______he was all right.
    a. but b. if c. then d. so

  2. We got up at 6 a.m every morning and________our breakfast.
    a. had b. took c. got d. spent

  3. In 1991 he________the youngest ever Junior champion.
    a. had b. became c. got d. turned

  4. When she looked in the______, she saw a small cut on her neck just below her right ear.
    a. bag b. mirror c. room d. glass

  5. Which word is not about family?

a. aunt b. grandfather c. wide d. wife
SECTION B: (6 marks)

Text 1: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase. (3 marks)

Matt Dieter is a T.V journalist. He lives (1)________ New York , but he works in Seattle. Every Friday night, he (2) _______ a plane from Seattle to New York, and then he takes a taxi (3)__________.He and his wife enjoy a happy (4) _________ together. They see movies, go to Broadway shows, and relax. On Sunday night, Matt returns (5) _______ Seattle. It’s a hard life, but he is very happy.

1/ A. in B. on C. at D. from

2/ A. watches B. visits C. takes D. makes

3/ A. to home B. home C. house D. to house

4/ A. weekend B. weekends C. weekday D. weekdays

5/ A. in B. for C. to D. from
Text 2: Read the text and answer the questions. (3 marks)

DIANA’S WEEKEND IN DUBLIN

Last May my friend Sue and I went to Dublin. We went there by plane on Friday morning. We were there Friday, Saturday, and Sunday night. We stayed in a hotel in a room with a view. We saw the sea from our window. Our friend Mike lives in Dublin and he took us round the city.



  1. Where did Diana go?

  2. What month did she go in?

  3. How did they go there?

  4. How many nights did they stay?

  5. What did she see from her hotel window?


II. WRITING

SECTION A: Make questions for the underlined parts (5 marks)

  1. He’s reading a magazine.

  2. Helen is going to wash up

  3. My father often gets up at six o’clock.

  4. John and Mary lived in London in 1980.

  5. I can’t go out because it’s raining.


SECTION B (5 marks)

In about 50-60 words write about your house or flat. Describe where it is, what rooms there are, what is in the rooms, what you do in the living room, where you have lunch and dinner, and what you like about it.




III. LISTENING

* SECTION A:



Listen to these conversations carefully and decide whether these following statements are True or False. Check the correct answer (5 marks)

TRUE FALSE

1. The museum opens at 10:00.  

2. The film starts at 7:35.  

3. The train leaves at 10:11.  

4. This program finishes at 8:15  

5. The shops close on Tuesday at 5:30  

6. The plane arrives at 2:10  

7. The lessons finish at 12:50  

8. The supermarket closes at 6:30  

9. Mark and Paula’s party was on the twenty – first of May.  

10. The birthday is on October the twenty – second.  
* SECTION B:

Listen to a short passage about David Lee and answer the questions (5 marks)

1. What does David Lee do?

2. Where does he live?

3. How many languages does he speak?

4. Is he married?

5. What does he do in his free time?


PRACTICE TEST 2

I. READING

SECTION A: (4 marks)

In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. On your answer sheet indicate the letter A, B, C or D against the number of each item 1 to 10 for the word or phrase you choose.

  1. They didn’t ……. the tickets.

a. booking b. booked c. to book d. book

  1. They’re ………...

a. bigs cars b. cars bigs c. big cars d. bigs car

  1. James would like…………. basketball.

a. playing b. to play c. play d. to playing

  1. The elephant is……….. land animal in the world.

a. the bigger b. the most big c. biggest d. the biggest

  1. Which word means very good?

a. expensive b. brilliant c. important d. beautiful

  1. They’re film stars. They’re very …………….

a. terrible b. famous c. fast d. comfortable

  1. The hotel is excellent.

a. cheap b. famous c. very good d. expensive

  1. A man-made pool for swimming is a ...................... .

a. garden b. swimming-pool c. river d. sink

  1. We………..most of the day in a boat.

a. had b. took c. got d. spent

  1. At Paddington ………….she couldn’t find the train to the airport, so she asked a railway guard.

a. airport b. bus stop c. station d. all are correct
SECTION B: (6 marks)

Text 1: Complete the text. Use these words. (3 marks)

pictures TV armchairs house bedrooms

We live in a big (1) ______ in London. . It’s a very beautiful house. It has four (2) ____________ , a living room, a big dining room, a kitchen, and two bathrooms. In the living room there are three (3) ____________ and two sofas. There’s a CD player, a (4) ____________ , and a video. On the wall there are a lot of (5) ____________ . In the evening we sit and watch TV and listen to music.


Text 2: Read the text. Are the sentences true (T) or false (F)? (3 marks)

Hi! I’m Gianna and I’m from Rome in Italy. I’m a taxi driver. My boyfriend, Franco, is a shop assistant. The shop is in the centre of Rome. Franco’s from Verona. We aren’t married. I’m 30 and Franco is 31. My address is 14, via Cavour, Rome, and my telephone number is 06 543 267.



  1. Franco’s from Rome.

  2. Gianna’s a shop assistant.

  3. Gianna’s 31.

  4. The shop is in Verona.

  5. Franco and Gianna aren’t married.

II. WRITING

SECTION A: Finish the second sentence so that it has the nearest meaning to the first one (5 marks)

  1. The girl is beautiful.

She is_______________________________

  1. I have a brother who is older than me.

I have an_____________________________________________

  1. This city has some interesting parks.

There ___________________________________________________

  1. How much is the red shirt?

How much______________________________

  1. What is your father’s job?

What___________________________________
SECTION B (5 marks)

In about 50-60 words write about your day. Use some of these words.



Usually/ sometimes/ never

have breakfast/lunch/dinner, go to school/work, get home,

get up, listen to music, watch television, go shopping, in the

morning/afternoon/evening, stay at home, go out, play



III. LISTENING

* SECTION A:



Dorita is an English student at a school in New York City. Listen to her letter to Miguel, her brother in Agentina and decide whether these statements are True or False (5 marks)

  1. She lives in an apartment with three American girls.

  2. There are nine students in her class.

  3. The students in her class are all from South America.

  4. New York is very big, exciting and expensive.

  5. The subway is hard to use.

* SECTION B: Listen to a short conversation and fill in the blanks (5 marks)

1. A: Good morning

B: Good morning. Can I have an (1)_____________, please?

A: Sure. Anything else?

B: No. thanks.

A: (2)_______________, please

B: Here you are

A: Thank you

2. A: Hi. Can I help you?

B: Yes. Can I have a tuna salad (3)_________________, please.

A: Anything to drink?

B: Yeah. A (4)_______________, please.

A: Ok. Here you are.

B: Thanks. How much is that?

A: (5)_______________, please

B: Ok. Thanks.

3. Assistant: Yes, please?

Customer: A (6)_______________ and a (7)___________________, please.

Assistant: Small or (8)____________

Customer: (9)_____________, please.

Assistant: That’s (10)__________, please.

Customer: Thank you.



PRACTICE TEST 3

I. READING

SECTION A: (4 marks)

In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. On your answer sheet indicate the letter A, B, C or D against the number of each item 1 to 10 for the word or phrase you choose.

  1. He ………… jeans.

a. doesn’t usually wear b. isn’t usually wearing c. wears usually d. doesn’t wear usually

  1. Richard isn’t very good …………..

a. to dance b. at dancing c. dancing d. at dance

  1. My hair is………….. than my sister’s.

a. straightest b. more straight c. straighter d. straight

  1. The kitchen isn’t very large. It’s ………….

a. expensive b. old c. big d. small

  1. I’m hot . Please ………….

a. Close the windows b. Turn on the lights

c. Put on your coat d. Open the windows



  1. She is a very clever girl .

a. boring b. noisy c. successful d. intelligent

  1. As the chair lifted Fran and Luke up into the sky, they looked……….and Luke waved to the people on the ground.

a. down b. up c. for d. at

  1. Their heads were large with a small ………… and mouth, and they had huge, black eyes.
    a. nose b. hair c. face d. hand

  2. It happened……………21 November 1990.
    a. in b. on c. at d. to

  3. He often has a cigar after dinner.

a. buys b. smokes c. makes d. finds
SECTION B: (6 marks)

Text 1: Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word (3 marks)

My town


I live in a small town beside the sea. It is a very nice town. The beach is beautiful and you can swim in the sea. Many tourists visit our town in summer.(1)_______are three cinemas in the town and two theatres. We also (2)_______a very good sports centre and some good shops. At weekends we often (3)_______to London. It only takes an hour to get to London (4)_______train. My school is in the centre of the town and I live near the school. I can walk (5)______school in five minutes. After school I often go to the beach with my friends and we play there in winter and swim in summer. I hope I can always stay near the sea.
Text 2: Read the text and answer the questions. (3 marks)

Every morning we got up at eight o’clock and had breakfast. We had eggs and bacon and then toast and coffee. On Saturday we visited the Art Gallery and Trinity College. In the evening we went to a French restaurant. On Sunday we went to the Wicklow mountains in Mike’s car. We got back late and cooked a meal at Mike’s house. On Monday morning we went to Phoenix Park and we played tennis. Then in the afternoon we took the plane home. We had a really good time.



  1. What time did they get up?

  2. What did they have for breakfast?

  3. What did they visit on Saturday?

  4. What day did they go to the mountains?

  5. Where did they eat on Sunday evening?

II. WRITING

SECTION A: Arrange these words and phrases to make correct sentences (5 marks)

  1. Thu’s / is / small / house ?

  2. Mai / dinner / having / the / is / at / moment

  3. Mr. Nhan / by / work / car/ to / goes

  4. much / earrings / those / how / are?

  5. school/ did/ when/ start /you?


SECTION B (5 marks)

In about 50-60 words write about your family. (Their names, their ages, their jobs…)


III. LISTENING

* SECTION A:



Listen and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) (5 marks)

1. A. $ 5. 50 B. $5. 15 C. $15. 50 D. $50.15 2. A. $ 10. 10 B. $ 1. 10 C. $ 10 D. $ 10.30

3. A. $25 B. $2.5 C. $ 25 cents D. $ 250

4. A. $ 39 B. $ 3.90 C. $ 9.30 D. $ 93

5. A. $ 7. 15 B. $15.70 C. $70.15 D. $7.50

* SECTION B:



Listen to a short passage and fill in the blanks (5 marks)

What do I(1)______________ about the nineties?... Uhm, well, I left home in 1993 and went to college. I studied economics- it was really (2)____________. I had a good time. Then after college, in 1997, I was really(3)_______________. I got a job immediately, at Chase manhattan Bank, a big bank in New York. Soon after that, in 1998, I met my wife, Gali. We got married in (4)________ and bought a (5)_____________ together. We’re very happy now.

Well, (6)__________ is OK… but I really love soccer. I remember that in 1994, the (7)____________ world cup was in the United States, (8)____________ won in 1994. in (9)__________, the World cup was in France. That year Brazil (10)___________ to France

PRACTICE TEST 4

I. READING

SECTION A: (4 marks)

In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. On your answer sheet indicate the letter A, B, C or D against the number of each item 1 to 10 for the word or phrase you choose.


  1. I haven’t tidied my office………...

a. just b. already c. yet d. since

  1. British people………. tea with milk.

a. to drink b. drink c. drinks d. are drink

  1. Can you look……….. my dog this weekend?

a. with b. away c. up d. after

  1. Are these your …………….?

a. knifes b. knife c. knives d. the knife

  1. I’d like some ………… about train, please.

a. money b. tickets c. information d. food

  1. I’d like to write her a letter but I forget her…….

a. number b. street c. address d. house

  1. People can drink wine in ........................

a. theatres b. squares c. pubs d. hospital

  1. They’re all ordinary people- male and female,……and old, teachers, students, office workers, engineers.
    a. fat b. men c. young d. boys

  2. This building is………….. than that one.

a. moderner b. less modern c. more modern d. b&c are correct

  1. The exercises we do at home are our …………..

a. homework b. housework c. homeworks d. houseworks
SECTION B: (6 marks)

Text 1: Read the text and mark the correct answer (A–C) to each question (1– 5). (3 marks)

Estelle Dupont was 100 years old in 2000. She was born near Bordeaux in France, where her father was a rich businessman. Today she lives in an old people’s home in Paris.“My father was a rich businessman and we lived in a chateau about ten kilometres from Bordeaux. Our home was very comfortable. The house was very big – there were twenty bedrooms, beautiful gardens and lots of servants. But my childhood wasn’t happy. I was an only child, and my mother was always ill. She died when I was eight, and my father died two years later when I was ten. It was a very bad time. I was a very unhappy child, but life is better now.”



  1. How old was Estelle Dupont in 1967?

A. She was living in Bordeaux.

B. She was 67 years old.

C. She was a hundred years old.


  1. Where did she live when she was a child?

A. She lived in the city of Bordeaux, France.

B. She lived in an old people’s home in Paris.

C. She lived in a chateau near Bordeaux.


  1. How many rooms were there in her house?

A. There were 20 rooms.

B. There were twelve rooms

C. There was no information given.


  1. Did she like the gardens at the chateau?

A. Yes, she said they were beautiful.

B. Yes, she said they were very big.

C. No, because she had no one to play with.


  1. What happened to her parents?

A. Estelle’s mother died two years after her father.

B. Her father died two years after her mother.

C. She was an only child.
Text 2: Read the text and answer the questions. (3 marks)

Hello, my name’s Peter Green. I’m married. My wife’s name’s Fiona. She’s a nurse, and I’m a teacher.We have two children: a son and a daughter. Their names are Adam and Nicola. They’re both students at the High School. Nicola is fifteen and Adam is eleven. We have a dog, Lucky. Nicola has a lot of CDs. Her favourite music is dance. Adam is a fan of Leeds football team. We have a house in Chester. It is very nice. It is in the centre of town.



  1. What’s his wife’s name?

  2. What’s his job?

  3. How many children do they have?

  4. How old is Nicola?

  5. How is their house in Chester?


II. WRITING

SECTION A: Make all the changes and additions necessary from the following set of words and phrases to produce five separate sentences. (5 marks)

  1. My father/ be/ tallest person/ in my family.

  2. he/ can/ cook/ but/ she/ not

  3. I/ go/ school/ yesterday

  4. they/ be/ here/ two day/ ago

  5. I / not/ him/ love

SECTION B (5 marks)

In about 50-60 words write about the food you eat. Use some of these words:



Always/ never/ sometimes

fruit, vegetables, meat, fish, vegetarian food, meal,

yoghurt, wine, lunch, dinner, cooking, breakfast
III. LISTENING

* SECTION A:



Listen and match the people on the left with the information on the right (5 marks)

1. Ted ________ a. just graduated from college

2. Sonia_______ b. is a receptionist

3. Bob________ c. works in a bank

4. Marie_______ d. is a lawyer

5. Suzanne_____ e. works in a restaurant

* SECTION B: Listen to a short passage and fill in the blanks (5 marks)

Alan’s a (1)_____________. He’s (2)__________ years old. He works five days a week. He gets up at (3)___________ every day. He eats (4)____________breakfast. He drinks two cups of (5)____________. Then he kisses his wife. He leaves for work at (6)___________. He has lunch in a (7)________ café. He comes home at (8)__________. In the evening, he goes to the (9)___________. He goes to bed at (10)_____________.



PRACTICE TEST 5

I. READING

SECTION A: (4 marks)

In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. On your answer sheet indicate the letter A, B, C or D against the number of each item 1 to 10 for the word or phrase you choose.

  1. I usually have chicken on Mondays.

A. eat B. buy C. raise D. feed

  1. She’s got a husband amd two children. She’s not ________.

A. married B. single C. woman D. girl

  1. The day after Sunday is ________.

A. Saturday B. Friday C. Tuesday D. Monday

  1. My father-in-law is my ________.

A. wife’s father B. husband’s father C. wife’s brother D. A & B are correct

  1. She hasn’t got any money. She wants me to ________ her some.

A. borrow B. lend C. take D. see

  1. - “Would you like a cup of coffee?”

A. - Yes, I’d like B. - Yes, I like C. - Yes, I do D. - Yes, please

  1. I could read when I ________ 5 years old.

A. am B. was C. have D. had

  1. I must _______ my homework on time.

A. finish B. to finish C. finished D. finishing

  1. He usually ____ wine, but today he _____ champagne.

A. drinks/drinks B. drinks/is drinking C. drinking/drinks D. drinking/drinks

  1. Their arms and legs were thinner_______a person’s.
    A. for B. than C. as D. to


SECTION B: (6 marks)

Text 1: Read the text and answer the questions. Write he, she, or they. (3 marks)

Mary is 65. Her husband, Paul, is 68. She’s retired. She doesn’t work. Paul is retired too. Paul usually goes out and buys the newspaper and reads it in the morning with his breakfast. He has toast and tea. Mary often has cereal and a coffee. Sometimes Paul watches the news on TV but Mary never watches TV in the morning. Paul has a nice garden and sometimes works in the garden. Mary has a lot of hobbies. In the morning she sometimes paints and she sometimes goes to French lessons. Sometimes they watch TV in the afternoon. They like TV game shows. In the evening they have dinner at seven-thirty and Mary sometimes drinks a glass of wine. Paul never drinks wine but he sometimes drinks beer. They never eat pizza because they don’t like Italian food. They usually eat English food. They never go out in the evening. They watch TV or play cards.

0 _S_he______ is sixty-five.


  1. ________ is sixty-eight.

  2. ________ are retired.

  3. ________ has cereal and coffee for breakfast.

  4. ________ watches the news on TV in the morning.

  5. ________ like TV game shows.


Text 2: Read the text and answer the questions. (3 marks)

Jennie and Michel Ballon are from Paris. They are in Oxford. Jennie is from Los Angeles, in the United States, and Michel is from France. They are married. Jennie is a student. Her school is in the centre of Paris. Michel is a doctor. His hospital is in the centre of Paris, too.



  1. Where are they from?

  2. Are they married?

  3. What’s his name?

  4. Where’s her school?

  5. Where’s his hospital?


II. WRITING

SECTION A: Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meanings: ( 5 marks )

  1. Tom is Mary’s husband.

 Mary is…………..

  1. How much is the book?

 How much does…………….

  1. Mary is 7 years old. Tom is 10 years old.

 Mary is………….

  1. My class has got 50 students

 There are ………..

  1. What is your mother’s job?

 What does………….
SECTION B: (5 marks)

Write five sentences about your favourite colours/clothes, what you are wearing now, and what you usually wear during the week/at weekend.



III. LISTENING

* SECTION A:



Listen to a short conversation and fill in the blanks (5 marks)


PERSONAL IDENTITY CARD

LAST NAME: Anderson

FIRST NAME: Daniel

COUNTRY: (1)_____________

JOB: (2)______________________

ADDRESS: (3)__________Thomas Street, San Francisco, California.

PHONE NUMBER: (4)_______________

AGE: (5)_________________

* SECTION B:



Listen to cashiers in a store. Check the two things each person bought. (5 marks)

1.  soup

 soap


 apples

 tomatoes

 shampoo

2.  CD


 game

 video


 cassette

 poster


3.  newspapers

 stamps


 books

notebook

 magazines

4.  coat

 T-shirt

 shoes


 socks

 tie



5.  chocolates

 cake


 soda

 bread


 cookies

6.  stamps

 magazines

 newspaper

 book

 notebook




ANSWER KEY
PRACTICE TEST 1

I. READING



SECTION A (4 marks)

  1. D

  2. D

  3. B

  4. A

  5. A

  6. A

  7. A

  8. B

  9. B

  10. C


SECTION B (6 marks)
Text 1: (3 marks)

  1. A

  2. C

  3. B

  4. A

  5. C


Text 2: (3 marks)

  1. Diana went to Dublin.

  2. She went in May.

  3. They went there by plane.

  4. They stayed 3 nights.

  5. From her hotel window she saw the sea.

II. WRITING



SECTON A. (5 marks)

  1. What is he reading?

  2. Who is going to wash up?

  3. What time does your father often get up?

  4. Where did John and Mary live in 1980?

  5. Why can’t you go out?


SECTION B. (5 marks)

Answers will vary.

III. LISTENING
* SECTION A:



1. T

2. F


3. F

4. T


5. T

6. F


7. T

8. F


9. F

10. T



* SECTION B:

  1. David Lee is a computer scientist.

  2. He lives in the United States.

  3. He speaks three languages.

  4. Yes, he is.

  5. He plays tennis and rides his bicycles in his free time.


PRACTICE TEST 2

I. READING



SECTION A.(4 marks)

  1. D

  2. C

  3. B

  4. D

  5. B

  6. B

  7. C

  8. B

  9. D

  10. C


SECTION B. (6 marks)

Text 1: (3 marks)

  1. House

  2. Bedrooms

  3. Armchairs

  4. TV

  5. pictures


Text 2: (3 marks)

  1. F

  2. F

  3. F

  4. F

  5. T

II. WRITING



SECTON A. (5 marks)

  1. She is a beautiful girl.

  2. I have an elder/ older brother.

  3. There are some interesting parks in this city.

  4. How much does the red shirt cost?

  5. What does your father do?


SECTION B. (5 marks)

Answers will vary.


III. LISTENING

* SECTION A:

1. F


2. T

3. F


4. T

5. F
* SECTION B:



  1. orange juice

  2. A dollar – fifty

  3. Sandwich

  4. mineral water

  5. Four seventy five

  6. Hamburger

  7. Lemonade

  8. Large

  9. Small

  10. £4


PRACTICE TEST 3

I. READING



SECTION A.(4 marks)

  1. A

  2. B

  3. C

  4. D

  5. D

  6. D

  7. A

  8. A

  9. B

  10. B


SECTION B: (6 marks)

Text 1: (3 marks)

  1. There

  2. have

  3. go

  4. by

  5. to


Text 2: (3 marks)

  1. They got up at eight o’clock.

  2. They had eggs and bacon and then toast and coffee for breakfast.

  3. They visited the Art Gallery and Trinity College on Saturday.

  4. They went to the mountains on Sunday.

  5. They ate at Mike’s house on Sunday evening.

II. WRITING



SECTION A. (5 marks)

  1. Is Thu’s house small?

  2. Mai is having dinner at the moment.

  3. Mr. Nhan goes to work by car.

  4. How much are those earrings?

  5. When did you start school?


SECTION B. (5 marks)

Answers will vary.


III. LISTENING
* SECTION A:

1. A


2. C

3. C


4. B

5. D


* SECTION B:

  1. Remember

  2. Interesting

  3. Lucky

  4. 1999

  5. nice house

  6. Basketball

  7. soccer

  8. Brazil

  9. 1998

  10. lost


PRACTICE TEST 4

I. READING



SECTION A.(4 marks)

  1. C

  2. B

  3. D

  4. C

  5. C

  6. C

  7. C

  8. C

  9. D

  10. A


SECTION B: (6 marks)

Text 1: (3 marks)

  1. B

  2. C

  3. C

  4. A

  5. B


Text 2: (3 marks)

  1. His wife’s name is Fiona.

  2. He is a teacher.

  3. They have 2 children.

  4. Nicola is fifteen.

  5. It is very nice.

II. WRITING



SECTON A. (5 marks)

  1. My father is the tallest person in my family.

  2. He can cook but she can’t.

  3. I went to school yesterday.

  4. They were here two days ago.

  5. I don’t love him.


SECTION B. (5 marks)

Answers will vary.

III. LISTENING
* SECTION A:

1. c 2. e 3. a 4. d 5. b



* SECTION B:

  1. lorry driver

  2. twenty five

  3. six o’clock

  4. enormous

  5. tea

  6. half past six

  7. transport

  8. five o’clock

  9. pub

  10. ten o’clock


PRACTICE TEST 5

I. READING



SECTION A.(4 marks)


  1. A

  2. B

  3. D

  4. D

  5. B

  6. D

  7. B

  8. A

  9. B

  10. B


SECTION B: (6 marks)

Text 1: (3 marks)

  1. He

  2. They

  3. She

  4. He

  5. They


Text 2: (3 marks)

  1. They are from Paris.

  2. Yes, they are.

  3. His name is Michel.

  4. Her school is in the centre of Paris.

  5. His hospital is in the centre of Paris, too.

II. WRITING



SECTON A. (5 marks)

  1. Mary is Tom’s wife.

  2. How much does the book cost.

  3. Mary is younger than Tom.

  4. There are 50 students in my class.

  5. What does your mother do?


SECTION B. (5 marks)

The answers will vary.


III. LISTENING

* SECTION A:

1. The United States

2. a police officer

3. 655


4. (415)753 - 7080

5. 26
* SECTION B:



1.  soup

 soap


 apples

 tomatoes

 shampoo

2.  CD


 game

 video


 cassette

 poster


3.  newspapers

 stamps


 books

 notebook

 magazines

4.  coat

 T-shirt

 shoes


 socks

 tie


5.  chocolates

 cake


 soda

 bread


 cookies

6.  stamps

 magazines

 newspaper

 book

 notebook




TAPESCRIPTS

ĐỀ 1


    1. SECTION A:

1. A: Hello, Transport Museum.

B: Oh, hello. What time does the museum open today, please?

A: It opens at ten o’clock.

B: Thank you.



2. A: Hello, ABC Cinema.

B: Oh, hello. What time does the film start this evening, please?

A: Which film – The Winner or Monday, Monday?

B: Oh, Monday, Monday, please.

A: That’s in Studio 2 and it starts at seven forty – five.

B: Thank you.



3. A: What time does the train leave?

B: The London train?

A: Yes.

B: Er, just a minute. It leaves in fifteen minutes, at ten past eleven.



A: ten past eleven. Thank you.

4. A: I have to go out at eight. What time does it programme finish?

B: Oh, I don’t know. Just a minute, it’s in the newspaper here. Er, it finishes at quarter past eight.

A: Oh, well can you record it for me, please?

B: Ok.


A: Thanks.

5. A: What time do the shops close on Tuesday?

B: They close at five thirty, I think.

A: Thank you.

6. A: What time does your parents’ plane arrive this afternoon?

B: It arrives at two twenty.

A: Twenty past two. Can you meet them?

B: Yes, I can.



7. A: What time do lessons finish today?

B: They finish at ten two one.

A: Ten to one? OK, thanks.

8. A: What time does the supermarket close?

B: Six thirty, I think. Oh, no, just a minute. It’s Friday today, so it closes at half past eight.

A: Oh, good. I can go after work. Thanks.

9. A: When was Mark and Paula’s party? Was it in May or June?

B: It was on the thirty – first of May, I think.



10. A: When’s your birthday?

B: It’s on October the twenty – second.




    1. SECTION B:

David is a computer scientist. He comes from Taipei in Taiwan, but now he lives in the United States. He works three days a week for Golden Gate Computers in the small town of Lake Forest, California. He speaks three languages: Chinese, English and Japanese. He’s married and has a daughter. He likes playing tennis and riding his bicycle in his free time.
ĐỀ 2

    1. SECTION A:

Dear Miguel,

How are you? I’m fine. Here’s a letter in English. It’s good practice for you and me!

I have classes in English at La Guardia Community College. I’m in a class with eight students. They’re all from different countries: Japan, Brazil, Taiwan, Mexico, and Russia. Our teacher’s name is Isabel. She’s very nice and a very good teacher.

I live in an apartment with two American girls, Annie and Marnie Kass. They are sisters. Annie’s twenty years old and a dancer. Marnie’s eighteen and a student. They’re very friendly, but it isn’t easy to understand them. They speak very fast!

New York is very big and very exciting, but very expensive! The subway isn’t hard to use and it’s cheap. It’s very cold now, but Central Park is beautiful in the snow. I’m very happy here.

Write to me soon

Love,

Dorita


    1. SECTION B:

1. A: Good morning

B: Good morning. Can I have an orange juice, please?

A: Sure. Anything else?

B: No. thanks.

A: A dollar – fifty, please

B: Here you go

A: Thank you

2. A: Hi. Can I help you?

B: Yes. Can I have a tuna salad sandwich, please?

A: Anything to drink?

B: Yeah. A mineral water, please.

A: Ok. Here you are.

B: Thanks. How much is that?

A: Four seventy five, please

B: Ok. Thanks.



3. A: Yes, please?

B: A hamburger and a lemonade, please.

A: Small or large?

B: Small, please.

A: That’s £4, please.

B: Thank you.


ĐỀ 3


    1. SECTION A:

  1. That’s five dollars and fifty cents, please.

  2. You can buy it for only ten dollars.

  3. Here’s twenty five cents.

  4. A grilled chicken sandwich is only three- ninety

  5. That’s seven-fifty, not seven-fifteen.




    1. SECTION B:

What do I remember about the nineties?... Uhm, well, I left home in 1993 and went to college. I studied economics- it was really interesting. I had a good time. Then after college, in 1997, I was really lucky. I got a job immediately, at Chase Manhattan Bank, a big bank in New York. Soon after that, in 1998, I met my wife, Gali. We got married in 1999 and bought a nice house together. We’re very happy now.

Well, basketball is OK… but I really love soccer. I remember that in 1994, the soccer world cup was in the United States, Brazil won in 1994. in 1998, the World cup was in France. That year Brazil lost to France


ĐỀ 4


    1. SECTION A:

  1. A: Hi, Ted.

B: Oh, hi.

A: Are you still working in the bank?

B: Yeah.


  1. A: Where are you working now, Sonia?

B: I just started as a chef in an Italian restaurant. Come and try my food.

A: Sounds great- I’d love to!



  1. A: Are you still at school, Bob?

B: No, I graduated from college last month.

A: Congratulations! And what are you doing now?

B: Nothing much. I’m tired. I’m taking a long vacation.


  1. A: What do you do, Marie?

B: Me? I’m a lawyer.

A: How long have you been doing that?

B: For about five years. Do you need a good lawyer?

A: Well, not yet!



  1. A: Are you a receptionist, Suzanne?

B: Yes, I am.

A: Do you like the people you work with?

B: Well. It’s my first week on the job, so I’m not sure yet.



    1. SECTION B:

Alan’s a lorry driver. He’s twenty five years old. He works five days a week. He gets up at six o’clock every day. He eats enormous breakfast. He drinks two cups of tea. Then he kisses his wife. He leaves for work at half past six. He has lunch in a transport café. He comes home at five o’clock. In the evening, he goes to the pub. He goes to bed at ten o’clock
ĐỀ 5

    1. SECTION A:

A: What’s his last name?

B: Anderson.

A: What’s his first name?

B: Daniel.

A: Where’s he from?

B: The United States.

A: What’s his job?

B: He’s a police officer.

A: What’s his address?

B: 655 Thomas Street, San Francisco, California.

A: What’s his phone number?

B: It’s (415) 753-7080.

A: How old is he?

B: He’s 26

A: Is he married?

B: No, he isn’t.




    1. SECTION B:




  1. Let’s see. Soup. That’s two for a dollar. And a bottle of shampoo- $6.50. so that comes to $ 7.50 and your change is $12.50

  2. Okay, now – let me see what you’ve got. The CD is $ 14.95, and the cassette – oh, a good one, my favorite group – it’s on sale for $4.95. So, let me see… That comes to $19.90. So here’s your change, ten cents.

  3. Yes, can I help you? Okay. Let’s see. The newspapers are $1.50, and the magazines will cost another…$8.15. Yes, so that’s let me see, $9.65, right? Here’s your change, $10.35.

  4. So you’re taking the T-shirt _ nice choice. The color suits you. Okay, that’s $4.95, then the socks. They’re another $3.20, so that’s $8.15, and here’s your change, $11.85.

  5. Mmm, I like chocolates, too. Okay. That’s $9.50 for the chocolates. And chocolate chip cookies, too. Mmm. You really do like chocolate. The cookies are $2.99. So that’s $12.49. And here’s your change, $7.51.

  6. Is this all? Okay. Let’s see. Now the magazines are $6.25. And you’re taking the book? That’s $12.00. So that comes to $18.25 together. And here’s your change. That’s a dollar seventy – five.



Phụ lục III

MẪU ĐƠN ĐĂNG KÝ DỰ KIỂM TRA CẤP CHỨNG CHỈ

(Kèm theo Quyết định số 30/2008/ QĐ-BGDĐT ngày 06 tháng 6 năm 2008



của Bộ trưởng Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo)



CỘNG HÒA XÃ HỘI CHỦ NGHĨA VIỆT NAM

Độc lập- Tự do- Hạnh phúc

(……….., ngày…….tháng…….năm 20….)

Kính gửi: Ông (Bà) Chủ tịch Hội đồng kiểm tra

…………………………………………..

Căn cứ Quy định về tổ chức đào tạo, bồi dưỡng, kiểm tra và cấp chứng chỉ ngoại ngữ, tin học theo chương trình giáo dục thường xuyên ban hành theo Quyết định số 30/2008/QĐ-BGDĐT ngày 6 tháng 6 năm 2008 của Bộ trưởng Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo,

Tôi tên: …………………………………………………………………………

Ngày sinh: ……………………………………………………………………...

Quê quán: ………………………………………………………………………

Số CMND: ……………, ngày cấp: …………….., nơi cấp: ………………….

Tôi đã hoàn thành chương trình giáo dục thường xuyên về …………………..

Khóa học …………………… tại ……………………………………………..

Tôi xin đăng ký dự kiểm tra cấp chứng chỉ ……………………………………

Tại Hội đồng kiểm tra …………………………………………………………

Tôi cam kết thực hiện đúng Quy định kiểm tra.
……….., ngày…….tháng…….năm 20….

Người đăng ký dự kiểm tra



(Ký, ghi rõ họ tên)


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