A. went leisurely B. came into C. dropped by D. went quickly
Question 33: The reason why Aurora is dressed to the nines is because she's got a date tonight.
A. dressed too casually for the occasion B. dressed in a size nine
C. dressed up and looking great D. dressed in a plain-looking suit
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 34: The story told by the teacher amused children in the class.
A. frightened B. saddened C. jolted D. astonished
Question 35: Polluted water and increased water temperatures have driven many species to the verge of extinction
A. enriched B. contaminated C. purified D. strengthened
Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the sentence given (circle the letter A, B, C or D)
Question 36: We are a very close-knit family.
A. Members of our family are never close to each other.
B. Members of our family have a very close relationship with each other.
C. Members of our family need each other.
D. Members of our family need to help each other
Question 37: " You broke my computer, Lan" Nam said.
A. Lan told Nam he broke his computer.
B. Nam accused Lan of breaking his computer.
C. Lan told Nam that he had broken her computer.
D. Nam said that Lan broke her computer.
Question 38: " Don't worry about your problem" she told me.
A. She wanted me not to worry about her problem.
B. She told me not to worry about your problem.
C. She advised me not to worry about my problem
D. She advised me not to worry about her problem.
Question 39:They haven't signed the contract yet.
A. The contract wouldn't be signed. B. The contract hasn't been signed.
C. The contract isn't signed. D. The contract wasn't signed.
Question 40: They have been working in this factory since 2004.
A. They had been working in this factory before 2004.
B. They have started working in this factory since 2004.
C. They were working in this factory in 2004.
D. They started working in this factory in 2004.
Question 41: John used to write home once a week when he was abroad.
A. John doesn’t now write home once a week any longer.
B. John enjoyed writing home every week when he was abroad.
C. John never forgot to write a weekly letter home when he was abroad.
D. When he was abroad he remembered to write home every week.
Question 42: His friends never forgave his betrayal.
A. His betrayal was never forgiven by his friends.
B. His betrayal were never forgiven by his friends.
C. His betrayal was never forgave by his friends
D. His betrayal never forgave by his friends.
Question 43: My father is tired of seeing any violent films.
A. My father hasn’t seen a violent film.
B. My father has enjoyed all the violent films he has ever seen.
C. My father is worried about missing the next violent film.
D. My father never wants to see another violent film.
Question 44: Mr. Brown bought this car five years ago.
A. It is five years ago since Mr. Brown bought this car.
B. Mr. Brown started to buy this car five years ago.
C. Mr. Brown has had this car for five years.
D. It has been five years when Mr. Brown bought this car.
Question 45: Eight years ago we started writing to each other.
A. We wrote to each other eight years ago.
B. We have rarely written to each other for eight years.
C. Eight years is a long time for us to write to each other.
D. We have been writing to each other for eight years.
Circle A, B, C or D to find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence
Question 46: Marriage is a life-long journey together, which is not simply a boat you A B C
get on together and getting off when it does not work out.
Question 47: Tom was verytired because he runs for an hour.
A B C D
Question 48: Would you likea few salt in your vegetables?
A B C D
Question 49: I finish my book before my next birthday.
A B C D
Question 50: The car whose quality is very good has been useda long time ago.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 51 to 60.
It is very difficult to succeed in the music business; nine out of ten bands that releasea first record fail to produce a second. Surviving in the music industry requires luck and patience, but most of all it requires an intricate knowledge of how a record company functions. The process begins when a representative of a company’s Artist and Repertoire (A &R) department visits bars and night clubs, scouting for young, talented bands. After the representative identifies a promising band, he or she will work to negotiate a contract with that band. The signing of this recording contract is a slow process. A company will spend a long time investigating the band itself as well as current trends in popular music. During this period, it is important that a band reciprocate with an investigation of its own, learning as much as possible about the record company and making personal connections within the different departments that will handletheir recordings. Once a band has signed the contract and, has finished recording an album, the Publicity and Promotions department takes over. This department decides whether or not to mass produce and market the band’s album. Most bands fail to make personal contacts in this second department, thus losing their voice in the important final process of producing and marketing their album. This loss of nice often contributes to the band’s failure as a recording group.
Question51: Which word can be best replaced for ‘release’?
A. distribute B. pay for C. overturn D. itemize
Question52: Which word can be best replaced for ‘takes over’?
A. takes charge B. take pleasure C. take advice D. takes blame
Question 53: What will a recording company investigate once they have identified a band at a bar or a night club?
A. the Publicity Promotions
B. the band itself and current trends in popular music
C. the singers’ personal relationship
D. the signing of this recording contract
Question54: According to the passage, the initial contact between a band and a recording company is made by_______
A. the band’s manager. B. a band member.
C. an A&R representative. D. the Publicity Promotions department.
Question55: The author mentions that a band’s success is dependent on all of the following factors EXCEPT
A. having patience.
B. making personal contacts with people in the company.
C. understanding how a record company functions .
D. playing music that sounds like music of famous bands.
Question56: According to the passage, the Publicity and Promotions department
A. has the final decision in producing an album.
B. handles the recording arrangements for the band.
C. sends representatives to look for new talented bands.
D. visits bars and night clubs.
Question 57: It can be inferred from the passage that_______
A. the music industry is full of opportunities for young band.
B. the A& R department has a large staff.
C. most bands do not fully understand how record companies operate.
D. the cost of recording an album is very expensive.
Question58: The phrase ‘this period’ refers to……..
A. waiting for the signing of a recording contract
B. scouting for young, talented bands
C. waiting to represent the A & R department
D. preparing to have the second album
Question59:Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to ‘handle’?
A. touch B. control C. manipulate D. protect
Question60:Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A. Nine out of ten bands fail to produce a second record.
B. It is important for a band to have an intricate knowledge of how a recording company functions.
C. Making personal connections will help the band in the final decisions about the promotion of their album.
D. The main factors in a band’s success are luck and patience.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 61 to 70.
Packet sugar from the supermarket is extracted from (61) __________ sugar cane or sugar beet. These (62) __________ are mixed with hot water, which dissolves their natural sugar. Sugar is also found in fruit some of which, such as dates and grapes, (63) __________ very high amounts of sugar. To be a little more (64) __________, sugar should be called sucrose. Sucrose is made up of two substances, glucose, which (65) __________ for instant energy, and fructose, which lasts longer as a source of energy. The sugar in fruit is mainly fructose. So when we eat fruit, we (66) __________ quite large amounts of natural sugar. Some scientists believe that too much sugar (67) __________ in sweets, cakes, and biscuits. It is said to be generally bad for the health, although nothing (68) __________ so far. However, it (69) __________ that sugar causes tooth decay. As one expert said that “If other foods damaged our body as much as sugar (70) __________ our teeth, they would be banned immediately.”
Question 61: A. both B. some C. either D. mainly
Question 62: A. productions B. products C. producers D. producing
Question 63: A. contain B. are containing C. are contained D. contains
Question 64 : A. scientists B. scientific C. Science D. non-science
Question 65: A. used B. are using C. use D. is used
Question 66: A. are also eaten B. have been eaten C. also eat D. will be eaten
Question 67: A. is eaten B. eats C. has eaten D. will eat
Question 68: A. is proving B. has proved
C. has been proved D. were proved
Question 69: A. knows B. has known C. is knowing D. is known
Question 70: A. damages B. did C. decayed D. effect
Read the passage below and choose the best answers that follow.
Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.
Question 71: According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because ....................
A. they are indispensable in everyday communications.
B. they make them look more stylish.
C. they keep the users alert all the time.
D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones.
Question 72: The word "means" in the passage most closely means ....................
Question 73: Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may ....................
A. cause some mental malfunction
C. change their users’ temperament.
B. change their users’ social behaviours.
D. damage their users’ emotions.
Question 74: "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means ....................
A. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones.
B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones.
C. information on the lethal effects of cell phones.
D. the negative public use of cell phones.
Question 75: The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with ....................
Question 43: A revolution in women’s fashion during the second half of the twentieth century made trousers acceptable for almost all activities.
A. available B. permissible C. attractive D. ideal
Question 44: No fan, electric or otherwise, actually cools the air.
truly B. haphazardly C. persistently D. continuouslly
Question 45: The climate of Chicago is subject to abrupt changes of weather.
sudden B. extreme C. adverse D. disruptive
Circle A, B, C or D to find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence. Question 46: New laws (A) should be introduced (B) to reduce the number (C) of traffic in the city center(D).
Laws B. be introduced C. number D. city center
Question 47: Since (A )fireworks are dangerous(B), many countries have laws preventing (C) business to sell (D) them.
Since B. are dangerous C. preventing D. to sell
Question 48: A majority (A) students in this (B) university are (C) from overseas(D).
A majority B. in this C. are D. overseas
Question 49: You should (A) stop to smoke (B) because it is (C) very harmful for (D) your health.
Should B. to smoke C. it is D. for
Question 50: One of (A) the students who are being (B)considered for the (C) scholarship are (D) from this university.
One of B. are being C. for the D. are
Read the passage below and choose one correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each question.
Traditionally in America, helping the poor was a matter for private charities or local government. Arriving immigrants depended mainly on predecessors from their homeland to help them start a new life. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, several European nations instituted public-welfare programs. But such a movement was slow to take hold in the United States because the rapid pace of industrialization and the ready availability of farmland seemed to confirm the belief that anyone who was willing to work could find a job.
Most of the programs started during the Depression era were temporary relief measures, but one of the programs – Social Security – has become an American institution. Paid for by deduction from the paychecks of working people, Social Security ensures that retired persons receive a modest monthly income and also provides unemployment insurance, disability insurance, and other assistance to those who need it. Social Security payments to retired persons can start at age 62, but many wait until age 65, when the payments are slightly higher. Recently, there has been concern that the Social Security fund may not have enough money to fulfill its obligations in the 21st century, when the population of elderly Americans is expected to increase dramatically. Policy makes have proposed various ways to make up the anticipated deficit, but a long-term solution is still being debated.
In the years since Roosevelt, other American presidents have established assistance programs. These include Medical and Medicare; food stamps, certificates that people can use to purchase food; and public housing which is built at federal expense and made available to persons with low incomes.
Needy Americans can also turn to sources other than government for help. A broad spectrum of private charities and voluntary organizations is available. Volunteerism is on the rise in the United States, especially among retired persons. It is estimated that almost 50 percent of Americans over age 18 do volunteer work, and nearly 75 percen of U.S. households contribute money to charity.
Question 51: New immigrants to the U.S. could seek help from _____.
A. the U.S. government agencies B. volunteer organizations
C. the people who came earlier D. only charity organizations
Question 52: Public-welfare programs were unable to take firm root in the U.S. due to the fast growth of _____.
A. population B. urbanization
C. modernization D. industrialization
Question 53: The word “instituted” in the first paragraph mostly means _____.
A. enforced B. introduced C. carried out D. studied
Question 54: The Social Security program has become possible thanks to _____.
A. people’s willingness to word B. enforcement laws
C. deductions from wages D. donations from companies
Question 55: Most of the public assistance programs _____ after the severe conomic crisis.
A. did not become institutionalized B. did not work in institutions
C. were introduced into institutions D. functioned fruitfully in institutions
Question 56: That Social Security payments will be a burden comes from the concern that _____.
A. the program discourages working people
B. younger people do not want to work
C. elderly people ask for more money
D. the number of elderly people is growing
Question 57: Persons with low incomes can access public housing through _____ .
A. state spending B. federal expenditure
C. low rents D. donations
Question 58: Americans with low incomes can seek help from _____.
A. government agencies B. federak government
C. non- government agencies D. state government
Question 59: Purlic assistance has become more and more popular due to _____.
A. people’s growing commitment to charity
B. taxpayers;s increasing commitment pay
C. young people’s volunteerism
D. volunteer organizations
Question 60: The passage mainly discusses _____.
A. immigration into America B. public assistance in America
C. funding agencies in America D. ways of fund-raising in America
Read the text and then decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space.
Women nowadays have more (61) _____ than those in the past. For example, our great grandmothers were not allowed to go to school or to work to earn their own living. (62) _____, they had to depend on their husbands financially. Modern women, on the contrary, can get good education, have their own careers, and (63) _____ their interests. They can even take good positions in politics if they are competent (64) _____ it. However, women living in our modern society have their (65) _____, too. Today’s women work harder than their great grandmothers so that they can gain the (66) _____ between working life and family life. Many people predict that by 2032, most (67) _____ positions at work will be taken by women. Then, it is possible that women will have more (68) _____ life because, (69) _____ in a very modern society, the women can’t (70) _____ their role in the family.
Question 61: A. advances B. advantages C. benefits D.conveniences
Question 62: A. Therefore B. However C. As a result D. Although
Question 63: A. pursue B. support C. promote D. stimulate
Question 64: A. to B. at C. with D. of
Question 65: A. obstacles B. disputes C. profits D. problems
Question 66: A. equality B. stable C. balance D. steadiness
Question 67: A. senior B. junior C. inferior D. superior
Question 68: A. sheltered B. healthy C. strenuous D. active
Question 69: A. though B. even C. ever D. never
Question 70: A. perform B. adopt C. fulfill D. neglect
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
There are desert plants which survive the dry season un the form of inactive seeds. There are also desert insects which servive as inactive larvae or pupae. In addition, difficult as it is to believe, there are desert fish which can survive through years of drought in the form of inactive eggs. These are shrimps that live in the Mojave Desert, an intensely dry region in the southwest of the United States where shade temperatures of over 500C are often recorded.
The eggs are in the size and have the appearance of grains of sand. When sufficient spring rain falls to form a lake, once every two to five years, these eggs hatch. Then the water soon swarms with millions of tiny shrimps about a millimeter long which feed on microscopic plant and animal: organisms which grow in the temporary desert lake. Within a week, the shrimps grow from their original 1 millimeter to a length of about 1 ½ centimeters.
Throught the time that the shrimps are rapidly maturing, the water in the lake equally rapidly evorporates. Therefore, it is a race against time. By the twelfth day, when they are about 3 centimeters long, hundreds of tiny eggs form on the underbodies of the females, Usually, by this time, all that remains of the lake is a large, muddy patch of wet soil. On the thirteenth day and the next, during the final hours of their brief lives, the females lay their eggs in the mud. Then, having ensured that their species will survive, the shrimps die as the last of the water evaporates.
If sufficient rain falls the following year to form another lake, the eggs hatch, and once again cycle of growth, adulthood, egg-laying, and death is rapidly passed through. If there is unsufficient rain to form a lake, the eggs lie dormant for a year, or even longer if necessary. Occasionally, prehaps twice in a hundred years, sufficient rain falls to form a deep lake that lasts a month or more. In this case, the species passes through two cycles of growth, egg-laying and death. Thus the species multiplies considerably, which further ensures its survival.
Question 71: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The effects of drought in the desert
B. The lifespan of fish eggs in desert conditions
C. The survival of insects in a desert climate
D. The importance of deep lakes in the desert
Question 72: The word “form” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. style B. shape C. nature D. design
Question 73: From the passage, it can be inferred that the Mojave Desert is unusual because _____.
A. it is hit even in the shade B. rain rarely falls there
C. it shelters inactive life D. very little survives there
Question 74: The author compares inactive eggs to _____.
A. shrimps B. sand C. larvae D. seeds
Question 75: The word “These” in the first paragraph refers to _____.
A. plans B. eggs C. insects D. fish
Question 76: According to passage, the eggs originate _____.
A. in the sand B. on the female C. in the mud D. in the lake
Question 77: The word “swarms” in the second paragraph could best be replaced by _____.
A. abounds B. grows C. crowd D. supports
Question 78: According to passage, approximately how long does a shrimps live?
A. 1 week B. 12 days C. 13 days D. 14 days plus
Question 79: The word “dormant” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. dead B. asleep C. passive D. empty
Question 80: What does the author mean by the phrase “a race against time” in the second paragraph?
A. The shrimps are in intense competition to reproduce.
B. The shrimps must reproduce before the waters recede.
C. The shrimps do not have enough time to reproduce.