ĐỀ thi thử ĐẠi họC– NĂM 2013 2014 MÔn thi: tiếng anh-đỀ SỐ 140



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68. Why did the author write the passage?

(A) because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer



(B) to outline the career of a famous American

(C) because of his fame as America’s favorite short story writer

(D) to outline the influences on O. Henry’s writing

69. According to the passage, Porter’s Father was

(A) responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas

(B) the person who gave him a life-long love of books

(C) a medical doctor

(D) a licensed pharmacist



70. The word “allegedly” in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) supposedly (B) reportedly (C) wrongly (D) mistakenly

Question 71. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?

(A) both of Porter’s wives died before he died

(B) Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist

(C) Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called “Rolling Stone”



(D) the first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin

Question 72. The word “venture” in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) challenging experiment (B) bold initiative



(C) speculative action (D) sorry experience

Question 73. The word “subsequent in line 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) resulting (B) police (C) alleged (D) official

Question 74. Porter lost all of the following when he went to prison EXCEPT his

(A) home (B) wife (C) job (D) books



Question 75. According to the author, how many stories did Porter write while in prison for three years?

(A) more than 300 (B) 35 (C) at least 12 (D) over 20



Question 76. The author implies which of the following is true?

(A) Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in prison for three years

(B) Porter was in poor health throughout his life

(C) O. Henry is as popular in many other countries as he is in America

(D) Porter’s wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin when he fled.



Question 77. Where in the passage does the author mention a habit of Porter that was to become very useful for him later?

(A) lines 6-10 (B) lines 11-15 (C) lines 16-20 (D) lines 21-25

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 78.I will communicate with you as soon as I have any news.

A. be related B. be interested in C. get in touch D. have connection



Question 79. “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the teacher said.

A. visible B. edible C. eligible D. audible



Question 80. I couldn’t see what she was doing. It was so dark down there.

A. make out B. make up C. make for D. make from

----------------------- THE END ------------------------





SỞ GD & ĐT THÁI BÌNH

TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRÃI


ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC LẦN II

NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014

MÔN: ANH VĂN

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút







Mã đề thi 132

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................

Số báo danh:...............................................................................


I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose the underline part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions..

Question1: A. entrance B. bamboo C. banyan D. paddy

Question2: A. catastrophe B. deliberate C. centigrade D. cellulose
II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question3: A. elaborate B. necessary C. mysterious D. contemporary

Question4: A. Contributory B. Psychological C. hypersensitive D. argumentative

Question5: A. sandals B. dental C. canal D. rental


III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question6: Unless we take immediate precautions, we’ll not be able to ______ the epidemic.

A. get away B. contain C. surround D. hold

Question7: Actually, I can’t ______ of that well-known painting.

A. make sense B. grasp C. comprehend D. understand

Question8: His present work ______ about one million dollars a year.

A. takes him up B. gets him on C. brings him in D. makes him out

Question9: ______ satisfy with the product, you can contact with the head office, please.



A. Provided that not you B. Shouldn’t you

C. Provided that you not D. Should you not

Question10: Why are you always ______ that you are one of the best journalists in the country?

A. hitting the ceiling B. blowing your own trumpet

C. pulling your leg D. finding fault with

Question11: Jump in the car. There’s enough ______ for you.

A. room B. chair C. place D. space

Question12: Jane: Oh, it is time for me to leave, John. John: ______

A. Long time no see. B. Me neither. C. Speaking. D. So long.

Question13: Having opened the bottle, ______ for everyone.

A. Mike pouring the drink B. The drink was poured

C. Mike poured the drink D. The drink was being poured

Question14: It is time every student ______ work harder for the coming exam.

A. had to B. has to C. ought to D. must have to

Question15: Catherine is the ______ of her boss’s eye.

A. lemon B. grape C. orange D. apple

Question16: “Would you mind turning down your stereo?’’ - “ ______”

A. Oh! I’m sorry! I didn’t realize that B. I’m really sorry! I’m not paying attention

C. No. I don’t D. Yes, I do

Question17: The government cannot afford to be ______ to public opinion.

A. ignorant B. unlikely C. unexpected D. indifferent

Question18: There is no chance of you getting the promotion after only two months working here, ______ the great work you have done.

A. notwithstanding B. presuming C. due to D. nevertheless

Question19: The doctor had been _______ for 48 hours and was exhausted.

A. on call B. on turn C. on work D. on tour

Question20: From an early age, Wolfgang had a/an _______ for music.

A. passion B. interest C. tendency D. involvement

Question21: You will need ______ understanding of the subject.

A. a whole B. a thorough C. a universal D. an exact

Question22: ___________ broken into when we were away on holiday.

A. Thieves had our house B. We had our house

C. Our house had D. It was our house

Question23: Nothing can ______the loss of the child.

A. come up with B. make up for C. make up with D. do with

Question24: Conservationists ______that experiments on animals be stopped.

A. recommended B. banned C. said D. complained

Question25: ______ the noise and pollution in the city, the Browns move to the countryside.

A. Being tired of B. Be tired of C. Were tired of D. Tired of

Question26: _______ you should do first is make a list of all the things you have to do.

A. What B. That C. As D. If

Question27: There's still no ______ about the reason why the Malaysian plane was mysteriously lost.

A. clarity B. clear C. clarify D. clearance

Question28: The ground is wet. It ______ rained last night.

A. may have B. might have C. must D. must have

Question29: ______ members of my family has a share in doing household chores.

A. All B. Each of the C. None of D. Every

Question30: I don’t like John. His ______ complaints make me angry.

A. continuous B. constant C. permanent D. continual
IV. Mark the letter on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correcting.

Question31: Commercial airliners do not fly in the vicinity of volcanic eruptions because even a small amount of volcanic ash can damage its engine.

A. volcanic ash B. a small amount of C. in the vicinity D. its engine

Question32: Calcium, the most abundantly mineral in the body, works with phosphorus in maintaining bones and teeth.

A. in maintaining B. abundantly C. in the body D. works with

Question33: The doctor told Mr. Anderson that, because of his severe cramps, he should lay in bed for a few days.

A. told B. because of C. lay D. for a few days.

Question34: Despite the disappearance of the Mayan Empire, there are still Mayans in the region that they once inhabited.

A. that they B. Despite the disappearance

C. there are still D. inhabited

Question35: Foreign students who are doing a decision about which school to attend may not know exactly where the choices are located.

A. the choices B. to attend C. are doing D. about which



V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 36 to 45.

Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning whether exposure to these radio waves might (36) _____ to brain cancer. So far, the data are not conclusive. The scientific evidence does not (37) _____ us to say with certainty that mobile phones are categorically (38) _____. On the other hand, current research has not yet (39) _____ clear adverse effect associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones.

Numerous studies are now going (40) ) _____ in various countries. Some of the results are contradictory but others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. (41) _____, these studies are preliminary and the issue needs further, long - term investigation.

(42) _____ the scientific data is more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile phone for long (43) ) _____ of time. Don't think that hands free phones are any safer either. At the moment, research is in fact showing the (44) _____ and they may be just as dangerous. It is also thought that young people (45) _____ bodies are still growing may be at particular risk.


Question36: A. bring B. lead C. produce D. cause

Question37: A. enable B. able C. let D. make

Question38: A. unhealthy B. secure C. safe D. risky

Question39: A. created B. demonstrated C. proved D. caused

Question40: A. by B. on C. through D. about

Question41: A. While B. Additionally C. However D. Though

Question42: A. Until B. Provide C. When D. As

Question43: A. quantities B. amounts C. periods D. intervals

Question44: A. fact B. truth C. way D. opposite

Question45: A. with B. that C. whose D. as



VI. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 55.

"The economic history of the United States", one scholar has written, "is the history of the rise and development of the capitalistic system". The colonists of the eighteenth century pushed forward what those of the seventeenth century have begun: the expansion and elaboration of an economy born in the great age of capitalist expansion.

Our excellent natural resources paved the way for the development of abundant capital to increase our growth. Capital includes the tools - such as: machines, vehicles, and buildings - that makes the outputs of labor and resources more valuable. But it also includes the funds necessary to buy those tools. If a society had to consume everything it produced just to stay alive, nothing could be put aside to increase future productions. But if a farmer can grow more corn than his family needs to eat, he can use the surplus as seed to increase the next crop, or to feed workers who build tractors. This process of capital accumulation was aided in the American economy by our cultural heritage. Saving played an important role in the European tradition. It contributed to American’s motivation to put something aside today for the tools to buy tomorrow.

The great bulk of the accumulated wealth of America, as distinguished from what was consumed, was derived either directly or indirectly from trade. Though some manufacturing existed, its role in the accumulation of capital was negligible. A merchant class of opulent proportions was already visible in the seaboard cities, its wealth as the obvious consequence of shrewd and resourceful management of the carrying trade. Even the rich planters of tidewater Virginia and the rice coast of South Carolina finally depended for their genteel way of life upon the ships and merchants who sold their tobacco and rice in the markets of Europe. As colonial production rose and trade expanded, a business community emerged in the colonies, linking the provinces by lines of trade and identity of interest.

Question46: The word ‘it’ in the third sentence of paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. resource B. capital C. labour D. growth

Question47: According to the passage, capital includes all of the following EXCEPT ______.

A. factories B. tractors C. money D. workers

Question48: According to the passage, the emergence of a business community in the colonies was a result of ______.

A. efficient saving B. the immigration

C. the existence of manufacturing D. the success of production and trade

Question49: The word ‘negligible’ in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.

A. able to be neglected B. very important

C. necessary to be neglected D. not very important

Question50: The phrase ‘put aside’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.

A. hidden B. reviewed C. saved D. consumed

Question51: With what subject is this passage mainly concerned?

A. Geography B. Economics C.      Finance D.     Culture

Question52: The phrase ‘paved the way’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.

A. accumulated B. supported C. resembled D. paid for

Question53: It can be inferred from the passage that the European ancestors of early Americans ____.

A. were accustomed to saving B. were good farmers

C. sent many tools to America D. taught their skills to their offspring

Question54: The word ‘funds’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.

A. capital B. money C. resource D. labour

Question55: According to the passage, which of the following would lead to accumulating capital?

A. Training workers who produce goods. B. Consuming what is produced

C. Planting more of a crop than what is needed D. Studying the culture history of the country


VII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question56: Proximity to the court house makes an office building more valuable.

A. Interested in B. Similarity to C. Nearness to D. Usefulness for

Question57: He was one of the most outstanding performers at the live show last night.

A. easy- looking B. important C. well- known D. impressive.

Question58: They are going to suffer a lot of criticism for increasing bus fare by so much.

A. get into B. stand in with C. come in for. D. put across
VIII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question59: Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.

A. amicable B. hostile C. futile D. inapplicable

Question60: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.

A. confident B. free C. occupied D. reluctant
IX. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70.



5
10

15

20



25

The ocean bottom - a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of the Earth - is a vast frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep-ocean floor was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,600 meters deep. Totally without light and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earth's surface, the deep-ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer space.

Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning of the National Science Foundation's Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP).Using techniques first developed for the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP's drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady position on the ocean's surface and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from the ocean floor.

The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15-year research program that ended in November 1983. During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar Challenger's core samples have allowed geologists to reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of years ago and to calculate what it will probably look like millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of evidence gathered during the Glomar Challenger's voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the geological processes that shape the Earth.

The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to understanding the world's past climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the intense chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates. This record has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change - information that may be used to predict future climates.


Question61: The previous paragraph may discuss about ______.

A. the land B. the ocean C. the frontier D. the earth

Question62: The author refers to the ocean bottom as a "frontier" because it______.

A. contains a wide variety of life forms B. is not a popular area for scientific research

C. is an unknown territory D. attracts courageous explorers

Question63: The word "inaccessible" is closest in meaning to______.

A. unusable B. unreachable C. unrecognizable D. unsafe

Question64: The author mentions outer space because______.

A. rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor

B. the Earth's climate millions of years ago was similar to conditions in outer space.

C. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment

D. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean exploration

Question65: Which of the following is NOT true of the Glomar Challenger?

A. It is a type of submarine. B. It has gone on nearly 100 voyages

C. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968 D. It is an ongoing project.

Question66: The word "extracting" is closest in meaning to

A. breaking B. removing C. locating D. analyzing

Question67: The deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was______.

A. composed of geologists form all over the world

B. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom

C. an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas

D. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry

Question68: The word "strength" is closest in meaning to______.

A. discovery B. basis C. endurance D. purpose

Question69: The word "they" refers to______.

A. climates B. sediments C. cores D. years

Question70: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea Drilling Project?

A. Two geological theories became more widely accepted

B. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen.

C. Geologists were able to determine the Earth's appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.

D. Information was revealed about the Earth's past climatic changes.


X. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions .

Question71: No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was an imitation. It greatly resembled the original.

A. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one, but not for the experts.

B. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully.

C. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic, though the experts could judge it quite easily.

D. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it wasn't genuine.

Question72: The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers.

A. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much business.

B. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better.

C. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.

D. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better.

Question73: I'd suggest that we avoid telling any scary stories with Janet around. She’s a bit unstable and could get hysterical.

A. It is no fun to tell frightening stories to Janet, who is not very stable mentally, because she only laughs instead of getting scared.

B. Janet has trouble keeping her emotions under control, especially when she is told frightening stories.

C. Since Janet is somewhat unbalanced, the only way to make her laugh is by telling stories, but we should avoid scary ones as they might cause her to panic.

D. Janet is somewhat mentally unbalanced and might easily become uncontrollably emotional, so let’s not tell frightening stories in her presence.

Question74: We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.

A. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we'd do at night.

B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.

C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.

D. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.

Question75: It isn't just that the level of education of this school is high. It's that it's also been consistent for years.

A. The level of education in this school, which is usually quite high, shows only slight variations from year to year.

B. The standard of education is not high in this school, but at least all the students are at the same level.

C. It isn't fair to deny that this school is successful, as it has had the same high standards for many years now.

D. Not only are the standards of education good in this school, but it has maintained those standards over the years.


XI. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions:

Question76: Diana ran into her former teacher on the way to the stadium yesterday.

A.  Diana’s teacher got run over whole she was going to the stadium.

B.   Diana’s car ran over her teacher on the way to the stadium.

C. Diana caused an accident to her teacher while she was going to the stadium.

D.  Diana happened to meet her teacher while she was going to the stadium.

Question77: You should have persuaded him to change his mind.

A. You should persuade him to change his mind.

B. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.

C. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn’t listen.

D. You didn’t persuade him to change because of his mind.

Question78: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.

A. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.

B. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.

C. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.

D. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.

Question79: I wish you hadn’t said that.

A. If only you didn’t say that B. It would be nice if you hadn’t said that.

C. I hope you will not say that D. I wish you not to say that

Question80: "You’re always making terrible mistakes", said the teacher.

A.     The teacher complained about his student making terrible mistakes.

B.      The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.

C.      The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.

D.     The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes


----------- HẾT ----------


SỞ GD & ĐT THÁI BÌNH

TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRÃI


ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC LẦN III

NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014

MÔN: ANH VĂN

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút







Mã đề thi 132

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................

Số báo danh:...............................................................................


I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 1: I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry.

A. hopeless B. hopeful C. successful D. unsuccessful

Question 2: Carpets from countries such as Persia and Afghanistan often fetch high prices in the United States.

A. Artifacts B. Pottery C. Rugs D. Textiles

Question 3: Though many scientific breakthroughs have resulted from mishaps it has taken brilliant thinkers to recognize their potential.

A. accidents B. misunderstandings C. incidentals D. misfortunes
II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 4: The government is not prepared to tolerate this situation any longer.

A. look down on B. put up with C. take away from D. give on to

Question 5: I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.

A. unplanned B. deliberate C. accidental D. unintentional
III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has the stress pattern different from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

Question 6: A. tattoo B. taboo C. igloo D. shampoo

Question 7: A. innovate B. insolent C. insistent D. innocent

Question 8: A. irrelevant B. irreparable C. irritable D. irrational

Question 9: A. psychological B. photographic C. agricultural D. spectacular

Question 10: A. subculture B. vigorous C. gadgetry D. consensus
IV. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 11: He’ll know if he’s got the position or not sometime before 5 o’clock today.

A. By 5 p.m today he’ll be informed about whether he’s been accepted for the position.

B. If he has been accepted for the position, he will receive the confirmation at around 5 p.m today.

C. Although it seems certain that he will be accepted, the decision won’t be made known to him until 5 o’clock.

D. If they decide to accept him for the position, they’ll contact him around 5 o’clock today

Question 12: If he doesn’t apologize, I will never invite him here again.

A. Unless he apologizes, then I will never invite him here again.

B. Unless he apologizes, otherwise I will never invite him here again.

C. Unless he apologizes, or I will never invite him here again.

D. Unless he apologizes, I will never invite him here again.

Question 13: The writer Kate Millett was forced to stay in a psychiatric hospital by her family.

A. The writer Kate Millett’s family made her stay in a psychiatric hospital.

B. The family of the writer Kate Millett convinced her to remain in a psychiatric hospital.

C. Together with her family, the writer Kate Millett was made to go into a psychiatric hospital.

D. Problems with her family made the writer Kate Millett go to a psychiatric hospital.

Question 14: I regret not going to the airport to say goodbye to her.

A. I wish I had gone to the airport to say goodbye to her.

B. I wish I would go to the airport to say goodbye to her.

C. I wish I went to the airport to say goodbye to her.

D. I wish I would have gone to the airport to say good bye to her.

Question 15: He’s been studying for so many years that he should have realized sooner that his grammar was incorrect.

A. A student of his experience ought to have noticed his incorrect grammar earlier.

B. The student would have known that his grammar was incorrect if he’d had more experience.

C. The grammar wouldn’t have been so problematic if the student had been aware of it sooner.

D. He has been a student for so long that he could quickly tell when his grammar was incorrect.
V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 16: Manufacturers often sacrifice quality _________.

A. in place of to earn more money B. and instead earn a bigger amount of money

C. for a larger profit margin D. to gain more quantities of money

Question 17: When reaching the top of the hill, __________.

A. below us extended the sea B. the sea came into view

C. it was the sea that extended below us D. we suddenly caught sight of the sea

Question 18: To solve this problem, it is advisable ________.

A. that a drastic measure be adopted B. that a drastic measure is adopted

C. a drastic measure to be adopted D. that to adopt a drastic measure

Question 19: The instructions from air traffic control were not fully explicit, and                                 .

A. therefore the pilot made it crash

B. as a result, the pilot made an error and crashed

C. so that the pilot made an error and crashed

D. resulting from the pilot crashing the plane

Question 20: ______________, Sir Isaac Newton described the laws of gravitation.

A. A seventee nth-century scientist B. When was a seventeenth-century scientist

C. Was a seventeenth-century scientist D. Who was a seventeenth-century scientist
VI. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 21: Why do you say the project should be changed even more? Personally, I cannot see the __________of introducing so many alternations.

A. ground B. reason C. point D. clue

Question 22: Mrs. Brown: Taxi! Taxi! Taxi driver: ______

A. It's my duty to drive you. B. Where to, Madam?

C. Fancy meeting you here. D. Where are you?

Question 23: The military government was determined to ______all opposition.

A. put through B. put out C. put down D. put in

Question 24: The tiny bells on the Christmas tree were ______ in the draught.

A. clanging B. tinkling C. gurgling D. ringing

Question 25: Top fashion models often spend hundreds of pounds______.

A. getting straightened their teeth B. having got their teeth straightened

C. getting their teeth straightened D. straightening their teeth

Question 26: ______, Edison didn’t have much schooling and he was taught by his mother.

A. When was a boy B. A boy was when C. Was a boy D. When a boy

Question 27: Only if these conditions are fulfilled ______to the next stage.

A. can the application proceed B. the application can proceed

C. the application proceed D. do the application proceed

Question 28: Mach numbers describe the velocity of airplanes ______ over the speed of sound.

A. have moved B. move C. moving D. moved

Question 29: Auroras are created when the sun’s particles are caught in ______.

A. field the earth’s magnetic B. the field magnetic earth

C. the earth’s magnetic fields D. the magnetic field earth

Question 30: (After a party at Mary’s house). Bill: ______

Mary: Thanks for your compliment. Good night!



A. You are a good cooker. Good night! B. You are a good cook. Good night!

C. Long time no see. Good night! D. Many happy returns. Good night!

Question 31: It is ______ that so many young people leave school without qualifications.

A. to be regretted B. to be regrettable C. to be regretful D. to regret

Question 32: Sumerians were the first to invent cuneiform, ______.

A. was s system of writing B. for a system of witting

C. a system of writing D. which a system of writing

Question 33: After the seventh month of pregnancy, ______ a good chance of survival.

A. there is a premature baby B. a premature baby has

C. does a premature baby have D. it has premature baby

Question 34: Migratory patterns in births ______ term of seasonal changes.

A. in usually be explained B. can be explained usually in

C. can usually be explained in D. can be explained in usually

Question 35: I am afraid that if I started running, the man would ______ me

A. take on B. take after C. take up D. take apart

Question 36: Mary lost one of her running shoes, but won the race despite this ______

A. disaster B. feat C. awkwardness D. handicap

Question 37: “Where’s Polly?” She ______.

A. in her room is studying B. has in her room studying

C. studies in her room D. is in her room studying

Question 38: Veronica broke the school rules so many times that the headmistress finally had no alternative but to ______ her.

A. eject B. expel C. export D. deport

Question 39: ______ your precious help, I wouldn’t have certainly overcome most of the practical difficulties

A. If not B. Provided C. Unless D. Without

Question 40: I've applied for several jobs. I don't want to ______.

A. be a good egg B. have an egg on my face

C. kill the goose that lay the golden eggs D. put all my eggs in one basket

Question 41: Everyone is surprised to know that the Korean Vice-prime Minister resigned and he _____ all responsibility for what had happened in the Sewol ferry.

A. captured B. bore C. maintained D. solved

Question 42: Bill: ‘I was hoping to get a ticket for Saturday.’ Bull: ‘­______’

A. You'll be lucky. B. Lucky to you. C. Lucky you! D. Good luck.

Question 43: We must adopt firm policy on punctuality. We can’t have people ______ late all the time.

A. arriving B. arrive C. to arrive D. to have arrived

Question 44: Fortunately, several of his colleagues had ______ in his downfall.

A. every hand B. their hands C. a hand D. both hands

Question 45: ______ the French army was defeated at the battle of Dien Bien Phu came a complete surprise to all over the world.

A. Why B. Which C. What D. That
VII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 46 to 55.

Fifty-five delegates representing all thirteen states except Rhode Island attended the Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia from May to September 1787. The delegates had been instructed by the Continental Congress to revise the old Articles of Confederation, but most believed that a stronger central government was needed. There were differences, however, about what structure the government should take and how much influence large states should have.

Virginia was by far the most populous state, with twice as many as people as New York, four times as many as New Jersey, and ten times as many as Delaware. The leader of the Virginia delegation, James Madison, had already drawn up a plan for government, which became known as the Large State Plan. Its essence was that congressional representation would be based on population. It provided for two or more national executives. The smaller states feared that under this plan, a few large states would lord over the rest. New Jersey countered with the Small State Plan. It provided for equal representation for all states in a national legislature and for a single national executive. Angry debate, heightened by a stifling heat wave, led to deadlock.

A cooling of tempers seemed to come with lower temperatures. The delegates hammered out an agreement known as the Great Compromise – actually a bundle of shrewd compromises. They decided that Congress would consist of two houses. The larger states were granted representation based on population in the lower house, the House of Representatives. The smaller states were given equal representation in the upper house, the Senate, in which each state would have two senators regardless of population. It was also agreed that there would be a single executive, the president. This critical compromise broke the logjam, and from then on, success seemed within reach.


Question 46: What is the main topic of this passage?

A. James Madison’s plan to create a stable structure for the government of the United States

B. The differences in population and relative power between the original states

C. A disagreement at the Constitutional Convention and a subsequent compromise

D. The most important points of the Small State Plan

Question 47: According to the passage, how many states were represented at the Constitutional Convention?

A. Fourteen B. Twelve C. Thirteen D. Fifty-five

Question 48: It can be inferred from the passage that ___________.

A. Every state in the country is larger than Delaware

B. Delaware has no right at the Constitutional Convention

C. Virginia is ten times larger than Delaware

D. Delaware has a small population compared to other states

Question 49: It can be inferred from the passage that the Articles of Confederation ___________.

A. allowed small states to dominate large ones

B. provided for only a weak central government

C. were revised and presented as the Large State Plan

D. were supported by a majority of the delegates at the Convention

Question 50: According to the passage, in 1787 which of the following states had the FEWEST people?

A. New York B. Delaware C. New Jersey D. Virginia

Question 51: In line 10, the phrase this plan (paragraph 2) refers to ___________.

A. a plan suggested by the national legislature B. the Small State Plan

C. a compromise plan D. the Large State Plan

Question 52: According to the passage, the weather had what effect on the Constitutional Convention?

A. Cold temperatures made Independence Hall an uncomfortable place to work

B. Hot weather intensified the debate while cooler weather brought compromise

C. Bad weather prevented some of the delegates from reaching Philadelphia

D. Delegates hurried to achieve an agreement before winter arrived

Question 53: The word shrewd (paragraph 3) is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. clever B. unfair C. important D. practical

Question 54: Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as one of the provisions of the Great Compromise?

A. Each state would have two senators

B. Congress would be divided into two bodies

C. There would be only one national executive

D. The president would be elected by popular vote

Question 55: The author uses the phrase broke the logjam (paragraph 3) to indicate that ___________.


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