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PRACTICE TEST 25

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in each group

Question 1: A. chemists B. laughs C. days D. books

Question 2: A. blessed B. demolished C. wretched D. played

Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from other words in the group (circle A, B, C or D)

Question 3: A. promote B. diverse C. language D. combine

Question 4: A. improve B. justice C. adopt D. admit

Question 5: A. understand B. geography C. engineer D. disappearance



Choose from the four options given (circle A, B, C or D) one best answer to complete each sentence.

Question 6: Most doctors and nurses have to work on a _______ once or twice a week at the hospital.

A. solution B. special dishes C. household chores D. night shift

Question 7: This is the first time we ______ this kind of food in this restaurant.

A. had eaten B. ate C. eat D. have eaten

Question 8: The boy waved his hands to his mother, who was standing at the school gate, to _______ her attention.

A. tempt B. attract C. pull D. follow

Question 9: You are old enough to take _______ for what you have done.

A. responsible B. responsibility C. responsibly D. irresponsible

Question 10: Small children are often told that it is rude to point _______ other people.

A. to B. for C. on D. at

Question 11: She told me she _____ her mother for ages.

A. hasn't met B. didn't meet C. hadn't met D. wouldn't meet

Question 12: Peter: “You look great in this new dress.” Barbara: “________.”

A. With pleasure B. Not at all

C. I am glad you like it D. Do not say anything about it

Question 13: ”_______” “No, Thank you, that’ll be all.”

A. What would you like? B. It’s very kind of you to help me.

C. Would you like anything else? D. what kind of food do you like?

Question 14: Our teacher often said, "Who knows the answer? _______ your hand."

A. Raise B. Lift C. Heighten D. Rise

Question 15: Ann ______ and left.

A. said goodbye to me B. says goodbye to me

C. tell me goodbye D. told me goodbye

Question 16: The ______ to success is to be ready from the start.

A. key B. demand C. agreement D. response

Question 17: My father phoned me to say that he would come _______ home late.

A. a B. Ø C. the D. an

Question 18: Our parents _____ hands to give us a nice house and a happy home.

A. join B. shake C. share D. give

Question 19: Emily said that her teacher _______ to London _______.

A. would go / the next day B. will go / tomorrow

C. had gone / the next day D. went / tomorrow

Question 20: John is _______ only child in his family so his parents love him a lot.

A. a B. no article C. an D. the

Question 21: In the 19th century, it _______ two or three months to cross North America by covered wagon.

A. had taken B. had taken C. took D. was taking

Question 22: “Can I try your new camera?” “_______”.

A. I’m sorry. I’m home late. B. I’m sorry, I can’t. Let’s go now.

C. Sure. I’d love to it. D. Sure. But please careful with it.

Question 23: The lights _______ out because we _______ the electricity bill.

A. have gone / did not pay B. will go / did not paid

C. go / would not pay D. went / had not paid

Question 24: Jack asked me _____.

A. where do you come from? B. where I had come from

C. where I came from D. where did I come from?

Question 25: The Americans are _____ than the Indians and the Chinese with physical attractiveness when choosing a wife or a husband.

A. much more concerned B. more concerning

C. much concerned D. concerned

Question 26: My mother used to be a woman of great _______, but now she gets old and looks pale.

A. beautify B. beautiful C. beautifully D. beauty

Question 27: John asked me _______ in English.

A. what that word means B. what did this word mean

C. what does this word mean D. what that word meant

Question 28: Sometimes she does not agree _______ her husband about child rearing but they soon find the solutions.

A. for B. with C. of D. on

Question 29: A woman can never have a happy married life without _______ her husband.

A. demanding B. agreeing C. trusting D. determining

Question 30: He isn't used to _____ with sticks.

A. eating B. eat C. ate D. eats



Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.

Question 31: Many of us have ambivalent feelings about our politicians, admiring but also distrusting them.

A. mixed B. critical C. approving D. indifferent

Question 32: She got up late and rushed to the bus stop.

A. went leisurely B. came into C. dropped by D. went quickly

Question 33: The reason why Aurora is dressed to the nines is because she's got a date tonight.

A. dressed too casually for the occasion B. dressed in a size nine

C. dressed up and looking great D. dressed in a plain-looking suit



Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 34: The story told by the teacher amused children in the class.

A. frightened B. saddened C. jolted D. astonished

Question 35: Polluted water and increased water temperatures have driven many species to the verge of extinction

A. enriched B. contaminated C. purified D. strengthened

Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the sentence given (circle the letter A, B, C or D)

Question 36: We are a very close-knit family.

A. Members of our family are never close to each other.

B. Members of our family have a very close relationship with each other.

C. Members of our family need each other.

D. Members of our family need to help each other

Question 37: " You broke my computer, Lan" Nam said.

A. Lan told Nam he broke his computer.

B. Nam accused Lan of breaking his computer.

C. Lan told Nam that he had broken her computer.

D. Nam said that Lan broke her computer.

Question 38: " Don't worry about your problem" she told me.

A. She wanted me not to worry about her problem.

B. She told me not to worry about your problem.

C. She advised me not to worry about my problem

D. She advised me not to worry about her problem.

Question 39: They haven't signed the contract yet.

A. The contract wouldn't be signed. B. The contract hasn't been signed.

C. The contract isn't signed. D. The contract wasn't signed.

Question 40: They have been working in this factory since 2004.

A. They had been working in this factory before 2004.

B. They have started working in this factory since 2004.

C. They were working in this factory in 2004.

D. They started working in this factory in 2004.

Question 41: John used to write home once a week when he was abroad.

A. John doesn’t now write home once a week any longer.

B. John enjoyed writing home every week when he was abroad.

C. John never forgot to write a weekly letter home when he was abroad.

D. When he was abroad he remembered to write home every week.

Question 42: His friends never forgave his betrayal.

A. His betrayal was never forgiven by his friends.

B. His betrayal were never forgiven by his friends.

C. His betrayal was never forgave by his friends

D. His betrayal never forgave by his friends.

Question 43: My father is tired of seeing any violent films.

A. My father hasn’t seen a violent film.

B. My father has enjoyed all the violent films he has ever seen.

C. My father is worried about missing the next violent film.

D. My father never wants to see another violent film.

Question 44: Mr. Brown bought this car five years ago.

A. It is five years ago since Mr. Brown bought this car.

B. Mr. Brown started to buy this car five years ago.

C. Mr. Brown has had this car for five years.

D. It has been five years when Mr. Brown bought this car.

Question 45: Eight years ago we started writing to each other.

A. We wrote to each other eight years ago.

B. We have rarely written to each other for eight years.

C. Eight years is a long time for us to write to each other.

D. We have been writing to each other for eight years.
Circle A, B, C or D to find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence

Question 46: Marriage is a life-long journey together, which is not simply a boat you A B C

get on together and getting off when it does not work out.

D

Question 47: Tom was very tired because he runs for an hour.



A B C D

Question 48: Would you like a few salt in your vegetables?

A B C D

Question 49: I finish my book before my next birthday.



A B C D

Question 50: The car whose quality is very good has been used a long time ago.

A B C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 51 to 60.

It is very difficult to succeed in the music business; nine out of ten bands that release a first record fail to produce a second. Surviving in the music industry requires luck and patience, but most of all it requires an intricate knowledge of how a record company functions. The process begins when a representative of a company’s Artist and Repertoire (A &R) department visits bars and night clubs, scouting for young, talented bands. After the representative identifies a promising band, he or she will work to negotiate a contract with that band. The signing of this recording contract is a slow process. A company will spend a long time investigating the band itself as well as current trends in popular music. During this period, it is important that a band reciprocate with an investigation of its own, learning as much as possible about the record company and making personal connections within the different departments that will handle their recordings. Once a band has signed the contract and, has finished recording an album, the Publicity and Promotions department takes over. This department decides whether or not to mass produce and market the band’s album. Most bands fail to make personal contacts in this second department, thus losing their voice in the important final process of producing and marketing their album. This loss of nice often contributes to the band’s failure as a recording group.

Question 51: Which word can be best replaced for ‘release’?

A. distribute B. pay for C. overturn D. itemize

Question 52: Which word can be best replaced for ‘takes over’?

A. takes charge B. take pleasure C. take advice D. takes blame

Question 53: What will a recording company investigate once they have identified a band at a bar or a night club?

A. the Publicity Promotions

B. the band itself and current trends in popular music

C. the singers’ personal relationship

D. the signing of this recording contract

Question 54: According to the passage, the initial contact between a band and a recording company is made by_______

A. the band’s manager. B. a band member.

C. an A&R representative. D. the Publicity Promotions department.

Question 55: The author mentions that a band’s success is dependent on all of the following factors EXCEPT

A. having patience.

B. making personal contacts with people in the company.

C. understanding how a record company functions .

D. playing music that sounds like music of famous bands.

Question 56: According to the passage, the Publicity and Promotions department

A. has the final decision in producing an album.

B. handles the recording arrangements for the band.

C. sends representatives to look for new talented bands.

D. visits bars and night clubs.

Question 57: It can be inferred from the passage that_______

A. the music industry is full of opportunities for young band.

B. the A& R department has a large staff.

C. most bands do not fully understand how record companies operate.

D. the cost of recording an album is very expensive.

Question 58: The phrase ‘this period’ refers to……..

A. waiting for the signing of a recording contract

B. scouting for young, talented bands

C. waiting to represent the A & R department

D. preparing to have the second album

Question 59: Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to ‘handle’?

A. touch B. control C. manipulate D. protect

Question 60: Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?

A. Nine out of ten bands fail to produce a second record.

B. It is important for a band to have an intricate knowledge of how a recording company functions.

C. Making personal connections will help the band in the final decisions about the promotion of their album.

D. The main factors in a band’s success are luck and patience.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 61 to 70.

Packet sugar from the supermarket is extracted from (61) __________ sugar cane or sugar beet. These (62) __________ are mixed with hot water, which dissolves their natural sugar. Sugar is also found in fruit some of which, such as dates and grapes, (63) __________ very high amounts of sugar. To be a little more (64) __________, sugar should be called sucrose. Sucrose is made up of two substances, glucose, which (65) __________ for instant energy, and fructose, which lasts longer as a source of energy. The sugar in fruit is mainly fructose. So when we eat fruit, we (66) __________ quite large amounts of natural sugar. Some scientists believe that too much sugar (67) __________ in sweets, cakes, and biscuits. It is said to be generally bad for the health, although nothing (68) __________ so far. However, it (69) __________ that sugar causes tooth decay. As one expert said that “If other foods damaged our body as much as sugar (70) __________ our teeth, they would be banned immediately.”


Question 61: A. both B. some C. either D. mainly

Question 62: A. productions B. products C. producers D. producing

Question 63: A. contain B. are containing C. are contained D. contains

Question 64 : A. scientists B. scientific C. Science D. non-science

Question 65: A. used B. are using C. use D. is used

Question 66: A. are also eaten B. have been eaten C. also eat D. will be eaten

Question 67: A. is eaten B. eats C. has eaten D. will eat

Question 68: A. is proving B. has proved

C. has been proved D. were proved

Question 69: A. knows B. has known C. is knowing D. is known

Question 70: A. damages B. did C. decayed D. effect
Read the passage below and choose the best answers that follow.

Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.

The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.

On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.

What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.

As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.

Question 71: According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because ....................

A. they are indispensable in everyday communications.

B. they make them look more stylish.

C. they keep the users alert all the time.

D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones.

Question 72: The word "means" in the passage most closely means ....................



A. “meanings”

B. “expression”

C. “transmission”

D. “method”

Question 73: Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may ....................

A. cause some mental malfunction

C. change their users’ temperament.

B. change their users’ social behaviours.

D. damage their users’ emotions.

Question 74: "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means ....................

A. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones.

B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones.

C. information on the lethal effects of cell phones.

D. the negative public use of cell phones.

Question 75: The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with ....................



A. the smallest units of the brain.

C. the mobility of the mind and the body.

B. the resident memory.

D. the arteries of the brain.

Question 76: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often, ....................

A. had a problem with memory.

B. abandoned his family.

C. suffered serious loss of mental ability.

D. could no longer think lucidly.

Question 77: The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means ....................

A. “certainly”

B. “obviously”

C. “privately”

D. “possibly”

Question 78: According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ......

A. their radiant light.

B. their raiding power.

C. their power of attraction.

D. their invisible rays.

Question 79: According to the writer, people should ....................

A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases. B. keep off mobile phones regularly.

C. never use mobile phones in all cases. D. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies.

Question 80: The most suitable title for the passage could be ....................

A. “Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time” B. “Technological Innovations and Their Price”.

C. “The Way Mobile Phones Work”. D. “The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular”.


KEYS TO PRACTICE TEST 25

1C 2D 3C 4B 5B 6D 7D 8B 9B 10D

11C 12C 13C 14A 15A 16A 17B 18A 19A 20D

21C 22D 23D 24B 25A 26D 27D 28B 29C 30A

31A 32D 33C 34B 35C 36B 37B 38C 39B 40D

41A 42A 43D 44C 45D 46D 47C 48C 49A 50D

51A 52A 53B 54C 55D 56A 57C 58A 59B 60B

61C 62B 63A 64B 65D 66C 67A 68C 69D 70A

71B 72D 73A 74B 75A 76A 77D 78D 79A 80B
PRACTICE TEST 26

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that has its underlined part pronounced differently from that of the other words.

Question 1: A. dine B. determine C. undermine D. mine

Question 2: A. peach B. heaven C. tease D. feasible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. imagine B. enormous C. permission D. possible

Question 4: A. under B. toward C. above D. behind

Question 5: A. mysteriously B. originally C. necessarily D. elaborately



Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct one to complete each of the following sentences.

Question 6: When he heard the joke, he burst into loud ___________ .

A.amusement B. laughter C. smile D. laughing

Question 7: The boss ______ to his secretary using the office phone for personal calls.

A. disagrees B. objects C. criticizes D. disapproves.

Question 8: Hardly ______ the captain of the team when he had to face the problems.

A. had he been appointed B. was he being appointed

C. did he appoint D. was he appointing

Question 9: ­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­_____ Columbus was one of ______ first people to cross ______ Atlantic.

A._ /the/ _ B. The/ the/ the C. _ / the/ an D. _ / the / the

Question 10: By 2050, medical technology ________ many diseases.

A. has conquered B. will conquer

C. will have conquered D. is conquering

Question 11: Neither of them will be treated preferentially, _________?

A. won’t they B. will they C. won’t them D. will them

Question 12: The Red List is a special book that provides names of _______ animals.

A. vulnerable and endangered B. vulnerable and dangerous

C. endangered and hunted D. extinct and killed

Question 13: The ______ of the pagoda in the water was very clear and beautiful.

A. sight B. mirror C. reflection D. shadow

Question 14: During the starvation, we used to keep a ______ of dried food in the factory.

A. conserve B. substitute C. reserve D. preserve

Question 15: As I won’t be able to attend the meeting, I’d like you to sign _____.

A. on my account B. on my name C. on my place D. on my behalf

Question 16: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” – “_______.”

A. Thank you very much. I’m afraid B. Thank you for your compliment

C. You are telling lie D. I don’t like your saying

Question 17: Tony is so _______ that his friends tend to tell him all their problems.

A. confidential B. critical C. optimistic D. sympathetic

Question 18: “Hello, I’d like to speak with Mrs Smith.” – “________”

A. Sure B. Who are you

C. Hang on, please, I will put you through D. Of course you can

Question 19: A university education is of course important but it is essential that all employees undergo a period of intensive ________.

A. preparation B. learning C. training D. concentration

Question 20: Anne: “Make yourself at home” John: “_______”

A. Not at all. Don’t mention it. B. Yes, Can I help you?

C. That’s very kind. Thank you D. Thanks! Same to you.

Question 21: The member of the Red Cross were dedicated their whole life to _______ the suffering of human beings.

A. reducing B. reductive C. reduction D. reduce

Question 22: Now that they have read it in _____, They believe me.

A. white and black B. black and white C. red and blue D. blue and red

Question 23: It is _____ that I can’t put it down.

A. so interesting a book B. so interesting book

C. such interesting book D. too interesting book

Question 24: They thought they could deceive me but they were wrong, I could _______.

A. see them off B. see off them

C. see through them D. see them through

Question 25: I couldn’t believe that they were brothers. They were as different as ______.

A. Mars and Jupiter B. chalk and cheese

C. dogs and cats D. milk from honey

Question 26: The rumors go that Jason will be arrested. He is said ______ a bloody robbery.

A. to have taken part in B. to have joined in

C. to join in D. to take part in

Question 27: My tooth is painful. I must go to see the dentist and get it _______ .

A. pull out B. pulled out C. to pull out D. pulling out

Question 28: Please move along to make __________ the new computer.

A. seat for B. room for C. a room for D. place for

Question 29: They are accustomed ________ up late at weekends.

A. with getting B. to get C. by getting D. to getting

Question 30: ________ of all these changes in the society is that women have more freedom.

As a result B. A result C. The results D. The result

Question 31: He says a full time teacher doesn’t earn ________ a part - time salesman.

A. As many as B. as more than C. as much as D. as more as

Question 32: They ______ for more than five miles but they didn’t stop to rest.

A. were walking B. have walked

C. had been walking D. have been walking

Question 33: _________ things about learning is communicating with people from around the world.

A. One best B. one of best C. The best D. One of the best

Question 34: ______ they are tropical birds, parrots can live in temperate or even cold climates.

A. Despite B. Even though C. Nevertheless D. Because

Question 35: _________, the results couldn’t be better.

A. No matter what he tried hard B. No matter how hard he tried

C. Although very hard he tried D. Despite how hard he tried

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.

Question 36: According to a journalist’s report, there was a heavy loss of lives in the disaster.

It is reported that there was a heavy loss of lives in the disaster.

There reported to have a heavy loss of lives in the disaster.

A journalist reports that the lives were lost heavily in the disaster.

A heavy loss of lives is reported to be in the disaster.

Question 37: When did you start playing chess?

A. How long have you started playing chess?

B. Since when have you been playing chess?

C. How long did you start playing chess?

D. How long ago have you played chess?

Question 38: Apparently the car did not sustain some damage.

The car seems to have sustained some damage

The car appears not to have sustained any damage.

It looks as if the car did not sustain any apparent damage.

It is apparent that the damage to the car was not sustainable.

Question 39: If I were you, I would take a rest.

I think you should take a rest B. You would better take a rest

C. Why didn’t you take a rest? D. Let’s take a rest, shall we?

Question 40: Neil Armstrong stepped on the moon first.

Neil Armstrong was the first step on the moon.

It was Neil Armstrong who stepping on the moon first.

Neil Armstrong was the first to step on the moon.

Neil Armstrong was the first stepping on the moon.



Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word or phrase.

Question 41: As a government official, Benjamin Franklin often traveled abroad.

widely B. secretly C. alone D. overseas

Question 42: American poet James Merrily received critical acclaim for his work entitled Jim’s Book.

advice B. disapproval C. praise D. attention

Question 43: A revolution in women’s fashion during the second half of the twentieth century made trousers acceptable for almost all activities.

A. available B. permissible C. attractive D. ideal

Question 44: No fan, electric or otherwise, actually cools the air.

truly B. haphazardly C. persistently D. continuouslly

Question 45: The climate of Chicago is subject to abrupt changes of weather.

sudden B. extreme C. adverse D. disruptive

Circle A, B, C or D to find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence.
Question 46: New laws (A) should be introduced (B) to reduce the number (C) of traffic in the city center(D).

Laws B. be introduced C. number D. city center

Question 47: Since (A )fireworks are dangerous(B), many countries have laws preventing (C) business to sell (D) them.

Since B. are dangerous C. preventing D. to sell

Question 48: A majority (A) students in this (B) university are (C) from overseas(D).

A majority B. in this C. are D. overseas

Question 49: You should (A) stop to smoke (B) because it is (C) very harmful for (D) your health.

Should B. to smoke C. it is D. for

Question 50: One of (A) the students who are being (B)considered for the (C) scholarship are (D) from this university.

One of B. are being C. for the D. are



Read the passage below and choose one correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each question.

Traditionally in America, helping the poor was a matter for private charities or local government. Arriving immigrants depended mainly on predecessors from their homeland to help them start a new life. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, several European nations instituted public-welfare programs. But such a movement was slow to take hold in the United States because the rapid pace of industrialization and the ready availability of farmland seemed to confirm the belief that anyone who was willing to work could find a job.

Most of the programs started during the Depression era were temporary relief measures, but one of the programs – Social Security – has become an American institution. Paid for by deduction from the paychecks of working people, Social Security ensures that retired persons receive a modest monthly income and also provides unemployment insurance, disability insurance, and other assistance to those who need it. Social Security payments to retired persons can start at age 62, but many wait until age 65, when the payments are slightly higher. Recently, there has been concern that the Social Security fund may not have enough money to fulfill its obligations in the 21st century, when the population of elderly Americans is expected to increase dramatically. Policy makes have proposed various ways to make up the anticipated deficit, but a long-term solution is still being debated.

In the years since Roosevelt, other American presidents have established assistance programs. These include Medical and Medicare; food stamps, certificates that people can use to purchase food; and public housing which is built at federal expense and made available to persons with low incomes.

Needy Americans can also turn to sources other than government for help. A broad spectrum of private charities and voluntary organizations is available. Volunteerism is on the rise in the United States, especially among retired persons. It is estimated that almost 50 percent of Americans over age 18 do volunteer work, and nearly 75 percen of U.S. households contribute money to charity.

Question 51: New immigrants to the U.S. could seek help from _____.

A. the U.S. government agencies B. volunteer organizations

C. the people who came earlier D. only charity organizations

Question 52: Public-welfare programs were unable to take firm root in the U.S. due to the fast growth of _____.

A. population B. urbanization

C. modernization D. industrialization

Question 53: The word “instituted” in the first paragraph mostly means _____.

A. enforced B. introduced C. carried out D. studied

Question 54: The Social Security program has become possible thanks to _____.

A. people’s willingness to word B. enforcement laws

C. deductions from wages D. donations from companies

Question 55: Most of the public assistance programs _____ after the severe conomic crisis.

A. did not become institutionalized B. did not work in institutions

C. were introduced into institutions D. functioned fruitfully in institutions

Question 56: That Social Security payments will be a burden comes from the concern that _____.

A. the program discourages working people

B. younger people do not want to work

C. elderly people ask for more money

D. the number of elderly people is growing

Question 57: Persons with low incomes can access public housing through _____ .

A. state spending B. federal expenditure

C. low rents D. donations

Question 58: Americans with low incomes can seek help from _____.

A. government agencies B. federak government

C. non- government agencies D. state government

Question 59: Purlic assistance has become more and more popular due to _____.

A. people’s growing commitment to charity

B. taxpayers;s increasing commitment pay

C. young people’s volunteerism

D. volunteer organizations

Question 60: The passage mainly discusses _____.

A. immigration into America B. public assistance in America

C. funding agencies in America D. ways of fund-raising in America



Read the text and then decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space.

Women nowadays have more (61) _____ than those in the past. For example, our great grandmothers were not allowed to go to school or to work to earn their own living. (62) _____, they had to depend on their husbands financially. Modern women, on the contrary, can get good education, have their own careers, and (63) _____ their interests. They can even take good positions in politics if they are competent (64) _____ it. However, women living in our modern society have their (65) _____, too. Today’s women work harder than their great grandmothers so that they can gain the (66) _____ between working life and family life. Many people predict that by 2032, most (67) _____ positions at work will be taken by women. Then, it is possible that women will have more (68) _____ life because, (69) _____ in a very modern society, the women can’t (70) _____ their role in the family.

Question 61: A. advances B. advantages C. benefits D.conveniences

Question 62: A. Therefore B. However C. As a result D. Although

Question 63: A. pursue B. support C. promote D. stimulate

Question 64: A. to B. at C. with D. of

Question 65: A. obstacles B. disputes C. profits D. problems

Question 66: A. equality B. stable C. balance D. steadiness

Question 67: A. senior B. junior C. inferior D. superior

Question 68: A. sheltered B. healthy C. strenuous D. active

Question 69: A. though B. even C. ever D. never

Question 70: A. perform B. adopt C. fulfill D. neglect



Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

There are desert plants which survive the dry season un the form of inactive seeds. There are also desert insects which servive as inactive larvae or pupae. In addition, difficult as it is to believe, there are desert fish which can survive through years of drought in the form of inactive eggs. These are shrimps that live in the Mojave Desert, an intensely dry region in the southwest of the United States where shade temperatures of over 500C are often recorded.

The eggs are in the size and have the appearance of grains of sand. When sufficient spring rain falls to form a lake, once every two to five years, these eggs hatch. Then the water soon swarms with millions of tiny shrimps about a millimeter long which feed on microscopic plant and animal: organisms which grow in the temporary desert lake. Within a week, the shrimps grow from their original 1 millimeter to a length of about 1 ½ centimeters.

Throught the time that the shrimps are rapidly maturing, the water in the lake equally rapidly evorporates. Therefore, it is a race against time. By the twelfth day, when they are about 3 centimeters long, hundreds of tiny eggs form on the underbodies of the females, Usually, by this time, all that remains of the lake is a large, muddy patch of wet soil. On the thirteenth day and the next, during the final hours of their brief lives, the females lay their eggs in the mud. Then, having ensured that their species will survive, the shrimps die as the last of the water evaporates.

If sufficient rain falls the following year to form another lake, the eggs hatch, and once again cycle of growth, adulthood, egg-laying, and death is rapidly passed through. If there is unsufficient rain to form a lake, the eggs lie dormant for a year, or even longer if necessary. Occasionally, prehaps twice in a hundred years, sufficient rain falls to form a deep lake that lasts a month or more. In this case, the species passes through two cycles of growth, egg-laying and death. Thus the species multiplies considerably, which further ensures its survival.

Question 71: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The effects of drought in the desert

B. The lifespan of fish eggs in desert conditions

C. The survival of insects in a desert climate

D. The importance of deep lakes in the desert

Question 72: The word “form” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.

A. style B. shape C. nature D. design

Question 73: From the passage, it can be inferred that the Mojave Desert is unusual because _____.

A. it is hit even in the shade B. rain rarely falls there

C. it shelters inactive life D. very little survives there

Question 74: The author compares inactive eggs to _____.

A. shrimps B. sand C. larvae D. seeds

Question 75: The word “These” in the first paragraph refers to _____.

A. plans B. eggs C. insects D. fish

Question 76: According to passage, the eggs originate _____.

A. in the sand B. on the female C. in the mud D. in the lake

Question 77: The word “swarms” in the second paragraph could best be replaced by _____.

A. abounds B. grows C. crowd D. supports

Question 78: According to passage, approximately how long does a shrimps live?

A. 1 week B. 12 days C. 13 days D. 14 days plus

Question 79: The word “dormant” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.

A. dead B. asleep C. passive D. empty

Question 80: What does the author mean by the phrase “a race against time” in the second paragraph?

A. The shrimps are in intense competition to reproduce.

B. The shrimps must reproduce before the waters recede.

C. The shrimps do not have enough time to reproduce.

D. Death occurs before the shrimps can reproduce.

KEYS TO PRACTICE TEST 26

1B 2B 3D 4A 5C 6B 7B 8A 9D 10C

11B 12A 13C 14C 15D 16B 17D 18C 19C 20B

21A 22B 23A 24D 25B 26A 27B 28B 29D 30D

31C 32C 33D 34B 35B 36A 37B 38B 39A 40C

41D 42C 43B 44A 45A 46D 47D 48A 49B 50D

51C 52D 53B 54C 55A 56D 57B 58C 59A 60B

61B 62C 63A 64B 65D 66C 67A 68C 69B 70D

71B 72A 73C 74B 75D 76B 77A 78C 79C 80B

1   ...   38   39   40   41   42   43   44   45   46


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